Final Exam Micro Without True or False & no fill in the blanks

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1

Chapter 1 & 3

Chapter 1 & 3

2

Microbes are NOT responsible for __________.
a. oxygen generation via photosynthesis
b. antibody production
c. the synthesis of acetone and alcohol
d. the synthesis of vitamins
e. breaking down wastes

b. antibody production

3

The cell theory states that __________ are made up of cells.
a. plants
b. all living things
c. archaea
d. animals
e. protozoa

b. all living things

4

In Pasteur's swan-neck flask experiment, the importance of the S-shaped curves in the flasks was twofold. The curves allowed entry of air but excluded __________.
a. viruses
b. nutrients
c. heat
d. airborne bacteria
e. oxygen

d. airborne bacteria

5

Pasteurization was first developed to kill __________ in wine.
a. spoilage bacteria
b. all bacteria
c. probiotic bacteria
d. disease-causing bacteria
e. antibiotic-producing bacteria

a. spoilage bacteria

6

Robert Koch's studies on Bacillus anthracis established a sequence of experimental steps to prove that microbes __________.
a. recycle elements such as nitrogen
b. can be altered to produce products such as human insulin
c. control insect pests
d. produce antiviral compounds
e. cause disease

e. cause disease

7

An exposure to __________ protects against infection with smallpox.
a. cowpox
b. influenza
c. chemotherapy
d. penicilline

a. cowpox

8

Ehrlich searched for a/an __________ that would destroy a pathogen without harming the infected host.
a. vaccine
b. vital force
c. pathogen
d. magic bullet

d. magic bullet

9

How would you recognize an antibiotic-producing soil bacterium on a plate crowded with other bacteria? The bacterial colony producing the antibiotic would be __________.
a. visible as masses called mycelia
b. surrounded by a clear area
c. star-shaped
d. red or yellow
e. characterized by pseudopods

b. surrounded by a clear area

10

The usefulness of antibiotics is hampered by __________.
a. the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria
b. difficulties encountered in mass production
c. an antibiotic's lack of specificity for bacterial versus animal cells
d. the limited types of antibiotic available
e. their inability to kill gram negative bacteria

a. the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria

11

All living organisms can be classified into three domains: __________.
a. Carnivores, Herbivores, and Omnivores
b. Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes, and Viruses
c. Animalia, Plantae, and Microbes
d. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
e. Bacteria, Fungi, and Protozoa

d. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

12

Which of the following is characteristic of bacteria?
a. Bacteria reproduce by a cell-division process known as mitosis.
b. Bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
c. Bacteria have DNA or RNA, but not both.
d. Bacteria have cellulose or chitin in their cell walls.
e. Bacteria live in extreme environments including pH, temperature, and pressure extremes.

b. Bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus.

13

All of the following are eukaryotes EXCEPT __________.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. helminths
d. algae
e. protozoa

a. bacteria

14

A new microorganism has been isolated from hot springs in Yellowstone National Park. It consists of single cells, which appear to lack a nucleus. Chemical analysis shows the presence of both DNA and RNA in the cytoplasm and pseudomurein in the cell wall. In which of the following groups will this organism be classified?
a. Archaea
b. protists
c. plants
d. Bacteria
e. fungi

a. Archaea

15

Arsenic is a relatively common hazardous waste generated by smelting processes and can contaminate soil and water surrounding smelting facilities. A bioprocess using naturally occurring bacteria to remove arsenic has been developed. This process is an example of __________.
a. nitrogen fixation
b. fermentation
c. bioremediation
d. gene therapy
e. genetic engineering

c. bioremediation

16

Placing the DNA from an animal cell into the genome of a bacterium will allow the bacterium to produce an animal product. This new piece of DNA is referred to as __________.
a. conjugated DNA
b. an enzyme
c. the genetic code
d. recombinant DNA
e. the hereditary material

d. recombinant DNA

17

Which of the following properties are true of both bacteria and viruses?
a. Both have cell walls composed of peptidoglycan.
b. Both can replicate using biogenesis.
c. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity.
d. Both are surrounded by a protein coat.
e. Both contain DNA and RNA.

c. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity.

18

Which is NOT a characteristic of the normal microbiota?
a. regularly associated with disease symptoms
b. are often called the normal flora
c. may benefit the human host
d. live within our bodies
e. live on our bodies

a. regularly associated with disease symptoms

19

Increased human exposure to new and unusual infectious agents in areas that are undergoing ecologic changes accounts for the __________.
a. emergence of new infectious diseases
b. development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria
c. increased incidence of smallpox
d. debate over the use of vaccines
e. lack of natural resistance to infectious disease

a. emergence of new infectious diseases

20

Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious __________.
a. protein
b. lipid
c. piece of DNA
d. piece of RNA
e. sugar

a. protein

21

Overuse and misuse of antibiotics has __________.
a. directly caused mutations in humans that make them allergic to the antibiotic
b. caused bacteria to acquire virulence factors and become more deadly
c. caused bacteria to become resistant to household disinfectants, such as chlorine bleach
d. selected for antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria and increased their frequency in both the hospital environment and the community
e. caused viruses to become resistant to a variety of antibiotics

d. selected for antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria and increased their frequency in both the hospital environment and the community

22

Microbes are responsible for __________.
a. synthesis of acetone and alcohol
b. synthesis of vitamins
c. oxygen generation via photosynthesis
d. breaking down wastes
e. all of the listed tasks

e. all of the listed tasks

23

Which of the following is a scientific name?
a. Legionella pneumophila
b. Legionnaires' disease
c. Philadelphia fever
d. Legionnaires' bacterium

a. Legionella pneumophila

24

In the scientific name Escherichia coli, Escherichia is the __________.
a. class
b. family
c. species
d. genus

d. genus

25

All life can be classified into three domains: __________.
a. Animalia, Plantae, and Microbes
b. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
c. Bacteria, Fungi, and Protozoa
d. Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes, and Viruses
e. Carnivores, Herbivores, and Omnivores

b. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

26

Which of the following properties are true of bacteria but not viruses?
a. Bacteria cannot infect viruses.
b. Both have cell walls composed of peptidoglycan.
c. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity.
d. Both contain DNA and RNA.
e. Both are surrounded by a protein coat.

c. Both use a molecule of nucleic acid to determine heredity.

27

Which of the following types of microorganism and its description are NOT correctly matched?
a. bacteria—prokaryotic
b. protozoa—small animals
c. helminths—multicellular animals
d. fungi—eukaryotic

b. protozoa—small animals

28

An exposure to __________ protects against infection with smallpox.
a. cowpox
b. chemotherapy
c. antibody
d. penicillin
e. normal microbiota

a. cowpox

29

Which of the following fields of study and its example are NOT correctly matched?
a. bacteriology—study of E. coli O157:H7
b. parasitology—study of HIV
c. immunology—study of vaccines
d. mycology—study of athlete's foot

b. parasitology—study of HIV

30

All of the following are examples of biotechnology EXCEPT __________.
a. bread making with bacteria and fungi
b. enzyme production by bacteria and fungi
c. antibiotic production by bacteria
d. bacteria that cause disease

a. bread making with bacteria and fungi

31

Mad cow disease is caused by a prion, which is an infectious __________.
a. lipid
b. protein
c. sugar
d. piece of DNA

b. protein

32

Which of the following is the most convenient and appropriate unit for expressing the size of an average bacterial cell?
a. centimeter
b. micrometer
c. millimeter
d. nanometer

b. micrometer

33

All of the following are visible through a compound light microscope EXCEPT __________.
a. 0.02-μm ribosome
b. 2-μm bacterial cell
c. 5-μm nucleus
d. 10-μm human cell

a. 0.02-μm ribosome

34

Which of the following is NOT a type of a compound microscope?
a. electron microscope
b. brightfield microscope
c. fluorescent microscope
d. darkfield microscope

a. electron microscope

35

Place these structures of the compound light microscope in the order that light passes through them on the way to the observer's eyes: (1) condenser, (2) ocular lens, (3) illuminator, (4) specimen, (5) objective lens.
a. 3-1-4-5-2
b. 3-1-5-4-2
c. 3-4-1-5-2
d. 2-1-4-3-5

a. 3-1-4-5-2

36

Which of the following kinds of microscopy would be most appropriate for viewing the shape and arrangement of pili or fimbriae on the surface of a bacterial cell?
a. darkfield microscopy
b. brightfield microscopy
c. transmission electron microscopy
d. phase-contrast microscopy
e. scanning electron microscopy

e. scanning electron microscopy

37

Which of the following types of microscopy is most useful for viewing the internal structures of unstained specimens?
a. brightfield
b. confocal
c. phase-contrast
d. fluorescence
e. electron

c. phase-contrast

38

In the Gram stain, if the decolorizing step is NOT performed, gram-negative cells will appear __________ at the completion of the staining procedure.
a. blue
b. pink
c. green
d. purple
e. unstained

d. purple

39

Acid-fast mycobacteria differ from non–acid-fast bacteria by the presence of __________. In the decolorizing step of the acid-fast stain, __________ is used.
a. waxy material in their cell walls; acid-alcohol
b. capsules; acetone-alcohol
c. peptidoglycan; carbolfuchsin
d. endospores; methylene blue

a. waxy material in their cell walls; acid-alcohol

40

The __________ charge of a basic dye adheres to the __________ charge of bacterial cell surfaces.
a. negative; positive
b. positive; negative
c. negative; acidic
d. positive; acidic
e. positive; basic

b. positive; negative

41

You are viewing a sputum smear that has been stained with an acid-fast stain. On this smear you see 5-μm- long red cells. You can conclude that __________.
a. there are no acid-fast bacteria in the specimen
b. the normal microbiota are acid-fast
c. the normal microbiota are Gram-negative
d. human cells are acid-fast
e. there are acid-fast bacteria in the specimen

e. there are acid-fast bacteria in the specimen

42

Chapter 4,11, 12

Chapter 4,11, 12

43

1. Spherical bacteria that divide and remain attached in chainlike patterns are called __________.
a. spirochetes
b. tetrads
c. staphylococci
d. streptococci

d. streptococci

44

Which of the following bacterial structures are necessary for chemotaxis?
a. capsules
b. metachromatic granules
c. fimbriae
d. flagella

d. flagella

45

Chemotaxis refers to the ability of microorganisms to __________.
a. move toward or away from chemical stimuli
b. move in a wavelike motion
c. attach to solid surfaces
d. survive under adverse conditions
e. escape phagocytosis

a. move toward or away from chemical stimuli

46

All of the following are found in the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria EXCEPT __________.
a. N-acetylglucosamine
b. lipid A
c. lipoteichoic acid
d. peptidoglycan
e. teichoic acid

b. lipid A

47

Gram-negative cells contain a periplasmic space that is __________.
a. filled with lysozyme
b. abundant in photosynthetic pigments
c. a site of endocytosis
d. the site of protein synthesis
e. rich in degradative enzymes

e. rich in degradative enzymes

48

Which of the following is NOT true of the Gram-negative outer membrane?
a. It contains lipopolysaccharide.
b. It contains enzymes for energy synthesis.
c. It has polysaccharide antigens that are useful in bacterial identification.
d. It is a part of the gram-negative cell wall.
e. It contains lipids also known as endotoxin

b. It contains enzymes for energy synthesis

49

Which of the following statements about a Gram-negative cell wall is NOT true?
a. It contains endotoxin.
b. It has teichoic acids.
c. It maintains the shape of the cell.
d. It includes a thin layer of peptidoglycan.

b. It has teichoic acids.

50

A population of bacterial cells has been placed in a very nutrient-poor environment with extremely low concentrations of sugars and amino acids. Which kind of membrane transport becomes crucial in this environment?
a. simple diffusion
b. active transport
c. facilitated diffusion
d. osmosis
e. pinocytosis

b. active transport

51

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Endospores allow a cell to attach to solid surfaces and to surfaces within the host.
b. Endospores are extremely durable structures that can survive high temperatures.
c. One bacterial cell produces many endospores.
d. Endospores are reproductive structures.

b. Endospores are extremely durable structures that can survive high temperatures.

52

Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its motility?
a. Myxococcus; gliding motility
b. motile cyanobacteria; gliding motility
c. spirochetes; axial filaments
d. Spirillum; axial filaments
e. Proteus; flagella

d. Spirillum; axial filaments

53

Some actinomycetes are similar to filamentous fungi because they __________.
a. have a prokaryotic cell structure
b. produce asexual reproductive spores
c. have a similar filament diameter
d. have chitin in their cell walls
e. live in a freshwater environment

b. produce asexual reproductive spores

54

Which answer is NOT true of bacterial photosynthesis and/or photosynthetic bacteria?
a. Cyanobacteria deposit sulfur derived from the splitting of hydrogen sulfide outside of the cells.
b. Some photosynthetic bacteria are anaerobes.
c. Cyanobacteria carry out the photosynthetic process similar to the way plants and algae do.
d. Some photosynthetic bacteria are also capable of chemoheterotrophic growth.
e. Green nonsulfur bacteria use organic compounds as the source of electrons for reduction of carbon dioxide.

e. Green nonsulfur bacteria use organic compounds as the source of electrons for reduction of carbon dioxide.

55

A new microorganism has been discovered that resides in the mouths of dogs. This microorganism lacks a nucleus, has a cell wall consisting of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide, is shaped like a corkscrew, and is motile by means of an axial filament. This organism is most likely related to __________.
a. spirochaetes
b. Acidithiobacillus
c. alphaproteobacteria
d. pseudomonadales
e. actinobacteria

a. spirochaetes

56

Which member of the gammaproteobacteria is a potential cause of pneumonia and can be found in warm-water supply lines and air conditioning cooling towers?
a. Legionella
b. mycoplasma
c. Salmonella
d. Coxiella
e. Klebsiella

a. Legionella

57

Which of the following bacteria are INCORRECTLY matched with gram reaction and morphology?
a. Bacillus; gram-positive rod
b. Neisseria; gram-positive coccus
c. Shigella; gram-negative rod
d. Streptococcus; gram-positive coccus
e. Staphylococcus; gram-positive coccus

b. Neisseria; gram-positive coccus

58

Which of the following bacteria does NOT fix nitrogen?
a. Azospirillum
b. some cyanobacteria
c. Azotobacter
d. Rhizobium
e. Nitrobacter

e. Nitrobacter

59

Which is NOT true of the rickettsias?
a. They are classified as alpha-proteobacteria.
b. They reproduce by fragmentation.
c. They can cause human diseases often characterized by a rash.
d. They are typically transmitted by insects and ticks.
e. They are obligate intracellular parasites

b. They reproduce by fragmentation.

60

A bacterium isolated from the soil has the following characteristics: it is a gram-negative straight rod, it is aerobic and motile, it produces water-soluble pigment, and it readily grows on several common laboratory media. Ribosomal RNA analysis places this bacterium with the gammaproteobacteria. This organism is most likely in the genus __________.
a. Vibrio
b. Legionella
c. Haemophilus
d. Pseudomonas
e. Bacillus

d. Pseudomonas

61

Which of the following statements is NOT true of the genus Mycoplasma ?
a. They are unusually small bacteria.
b. They are highly pleomorphic.
c. They are obligate intracellular pathogens.
d. They are genetically related to gram-positive bacteria.
e. They may produce filaments that resemble fungi.

c. They are obligate intracellular pathogens.

62

Which of these bacteria is NOT associated with foodborne illness?
a. Erwinia
b. Campylobacter
c. Salmonella
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Shigella

a. Erwinia

63

Enteric bacteria would most likely be found in which environment?
a. warm, tropical soil
b. human skin
c. intestinal tract of an animal
d. unpasteurized milk and apple juice
e. aquatic environments

c. intestinal tract of an animal

64

Which of the following statements is true of members of the order Lactobacillales?
a. They are all Gram-negative.
b. They can grow only in dark environments.
c. They do not perform aerobic or anaerobic respiration.
d. They are all rod-shaped.
e. They are obligate anaerobes.

c. They do not perform aerobic or anaerobic respiration.

65

Which of the following is an example of a helical bacterium that does NOT make a complete twist?
a. Yersinia
b. Helicobacter
c. Treponema
d. Serratia
e. Klebsiella

b. Helicobacter

66

Which of the following is an endospore-forming bacterium?
a. Bacillus
b. Nocardia
c. Streptomyces
d. Corynebacterium
e. Streptococcus

a. Bacillus

67

All of the following can form filaments EXCEPT __________.
a. Actinomyces
b. Nocardia
c. Mycoplasma
d. Borrelia
e. Streptomyces

d. Borrelia

68

Enterics are __________.
a. anaerobic, Gram-negative bacteria that cause disease
b. anaerobic bacteria
c. Gram-positive bacteria found in humans
d. facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative rods

d. facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative rods

69

Which of the following genera contains organisms that are psychrotrophic?
a. Streptococcus
b. Listeria
c. Staphylococcus
d. Bacillus

b. Listeria

70

Which of these descriptive terms best fits organisms growing near hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor?
a. acidophilic
b. hyperthermophilic
c. halophilic
d. osmophilic

b. hyperthermophilic

71

In the 1990s a new parasitic helminth was described in a 3-year-old boy. The only unusual part of his history was that he played in a shed frequented by raccoons. To diagnose the child's behavioral changes and loss of speech and motor skills, doctors did MRIs and CT scans. The data collected from these scans suggested the presence of larval helminths in his brain. Which of the following is the most likely scenario?
a. Raccoons are both the intermediate hosts and the definitive hosts.
b. Raccoons are the intermediate hosts, and humans are the definitive hosts.
c. Raccoons are the definitive hosts, and humans are accidental intermediate hosts.
d. Humans are both the intermediate and definitive hosts.
e. Raccoons are the intermediate hosts, and the definitive host is unknown.

c. Raccoons are the definitive hosts, and humans are accidental intermediate hosts.

72

Which of the following is NOT true of the fungi?
a. They are strict aerobes.
b. They are capable of metabolizing complex carbohydrates found in newspaper and wood.
c. Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses.
d. They can grow in high concentrations of sugars and salts.
e. Identification of fungi usually involves examination of spore types.

a. They are strict aerobes.

73

Fungi are __________.
a. photoheterotrophs
b. photoautotrophs
c. chemoautotrophs
d. lithotrophs
e. chemoheterotrophs

c. chemoautotrophs

74

Fungal spores __________.
a. require moisture for survival
b. include only sexual spores
c. are as resistant to extreme environmental conditions as bacterial endospores are
d. are considered "reproductive" spores
e. are released from the "parent" only after the parent dies

d. are considered "reproductive" spores

75

Algae differ from fungi in that algae __________.
a. are unicellular
b. are eukaryotic
c. reproduce sexually
d. are autotrophs

a. are unicellular

76

Which of these answers appropriately describes the symbiotic relationship within lichens?
a. mutualism
b. codependence
c. commensalism
d. parasitism

a. mutualism

77

Cellular slime molds differ from plasmodial slime molds because cellular slime molds ___________. A unicellular alga with cell walls containing pectin and silica is isolated from coastal waters. It is capable of photosynthesis and stores oil for energy. This alga is most likely a __________.
a. are eukaryotic; red alga
b. have uninucleate cells; diatom
c. are prokaryotic; green alga
d. resemble protozoa; green alga
e. form spores; brown alga

b. have uninucleate cells; diatom

78

Which of the following phyla does NOT contain members that cause disease in humans?
a. Apicomplexa
b. Ciliophora
c. Euglenozoa
d. All of the listed phyla include human pathogens.

d. All of the listed phyla include human pathogens.

79

You are an epidemiologist studying an emerging disease reported over the past 3 years in Wisconsin, Minnesota, and Michigan. You have noticed a seasonal pattern of disease, with new cases appearing in late April through September and peaking in July. No new cases appear during late fall or the winter months. This pattern is suggestive of __________.
a. Babesia disease caused by a temperature-sensitive bacterium
b. Cyclospora disease caused by a parasitic protozoa
c. Plasmodium disease caused by a pathogenic algae
d. Giardia disease transmission by an arthropod vector such as a mosquito or tick
e. disease caused by a temperature-sensitive virus

d. Giardia disease transmission by an arthropod vector such as a mosquito or tick

80

Chapter 5

Chapter 5

81

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
a. metabolic pathways; sequences of chemical reactions
b. oxidation; reaction in which electrons are gained
c. catabolism; breakdown of organic compounds
d. anabolism; building of complex molecules
e. metabolism; sum of all chemical reactions

b. oxidation; reaction in which electrons are gained

82

Enzymes are important in living organisms because they __________.
a. interact with and destroy unwanted cellular substrates
b. increase environmental temperatures to increase rates of reactions
c. catalyze the covalent bonding of NAD+ molecules to substrates
d. bind irreversibly to substrates and remove them from the cellular pool
e. bring together reactants or properly orient a molecule for a reaction

e. bring together reactants or properly orient a molecule for a reaction

83

A coenzyme assists an enzyme by accepting or donating matter. What does NAD+ transfer?
a. phosphate groups
b. acetyl groups
c. ATP
d. acetyl CoA
e. electron

e. electron

84

All of the following are required for the generation of ATP by chemiosmosis EXCEPT __________.
a. passage of electrons through electron carrier chains
b. active transport of protons across a phospholipid membrane
c. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid
d. formation of a proton motive force
e. use of proton flow by ATP synthase

c. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid

85

Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves __________.
a. destruction of the enzyme’s substrate
b. competition for binding at the enzyme’s allosteric site
c. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site
d. alteration of the enzyme's active site
e. irreversible binding to the enzyme’s active site

c. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site

86

In an enzymatic reaction involving oxidation of a substrate, which of the following would be required?
a. O2
b. FADH2
c. NAD+
d. ATP
e. H2O

c. NAD+

87

A Thiobacillus bacterium uses the Calvin-Benson cycle to reduce CO2 and the oxidation of sulfide ions for energy. This organism is a __________.
a. chemoautotroph
b. chemoheterotroph
c. photoheterotroph
d. photochemotroph
e. photoautotroph

a. chemoautotroph

88

Heterotrophs use organic molecules as energy and carbon sources. To produce five-carbon intermediates needed for synthesis of nucleic acids, the cell utilizes the __________.
a. glycolytic pathway
b. cyclic photophosphorylation pathway
c. mixed acid fermentation pathway
d. pentose phosphate pathway
e. Krebs cycle

d. pentose phosphate pathway

89

Streptococcus bacteria lack an electron transport chain. How many molecules of ATP can a Streptococcus cell net from one molecule of glucose?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 10
d. 36
e. 38

b. 2

90

The proton motive force is __________.
a. the movement of flagella
b. ATP accumulation in the mitochondria
c. the accumulation of water formed in respiration
d. the movement of water across a membrane
e. an electrochemical gradient formed across a membrane

d. the movement of water across a membrane

91

Unlike chemiosmosis in eukaryotes, prokaryotes chemiosmosis __________.
a. does not require a membrane
b. occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria
c. electrons are eventually passed to organic molecules instead of inorganic acceptors
d. does not require ATP synthase
e. moves iron instead of protons across the membrane

b. occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria

92

Which of the following would you predict to be a feedback inhibitor of the glycolytic enzyme phosphofructokinase?
a. NAD+
b. FAD
c. ATP
d. ADP
e. fructose

c. ATP

93

All of the following are potential end-products of fermentation EXCEPT __________.
a. pyruvic acid
b. acetic acid
c. ethanol
d. carbon dioxide
e. lactic acid

a. pyruvic acid

94

Which one molecule could provide the carbon source, the energy source, and the electron source for a chemoheterotroph?
a. sulfur
b. nitrogen
c. ATP
d. carbon dioxide
e. glucose

e. glucose

95

Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?
a. anoxygenic autotroph; light
b. chemoautotroph; iron
c. chemoheterotroph; glucose
d. photoheterotroph; light
e. photoautotroph; CO2

e. photoautotroph; CO2

96

Organisms that use carbon dioxide as a carbon source and ammonia or hydrogen sulfide as energy sources are called __________.
a. photoautotrophs
b. chemoheterotrophs
c. chemoautotrophs
d. saprophytes
e. photoheterotrophs

c. chemoautotrophs

97

All of the following pairs are correctly matched EXCEPT __________.
a. anabolism—building of complex molecules
b. metabolic pathways—sequences of chemical reactions
c. catabolism—breakdown of more complex organic compounds
d. metabolism—sum of all chemical reactions
e. oxidation—reaction in which electrons are gained

e. oxidation—reaction in which electrons are gained

98

Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves __________.
a. alteration of the enzyme's active site
b. competition for binding at the enzyme allosteric site
c. destruction of the enzyme substrate
d. irreversible binding to the enzyme active site
e. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site

e. competition with the substrate for binding at the active site

99

Which of the following mechanisms does NOT generate ATP using an electron transport chain?
a. substrate-level phosphorylation
b. photophosphorylation
c. anaerobic respiration
d. aerobic respiration

a. substrate-level phosphorylation

100

The complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic and anaerobic respiration involves which three stages?
a. chemiosmosis, photophosphorylation, and reduction
b. photosynthesis, fermentation, and oxidation
c. substrate phosphorylation, pentose phosphate shunt, and the Calvin cycle
d. glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

d. glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

101

Which of the following processes requires energy?
a. osmosis
b. active transport
c. simple diffusion
d. facilitated diffusion

b. active transport

102

Chapter 6

Chapter 6

103

Bacteria growing in and on the human body, including normal microbiota as well as pathogens, are classified as __________.
a. mesophilic and halophilic
b. mesophilic and acidophilic
c. thermophilic and acidophilic
d. mesophilic and heterotrophic
e. thermophilic and halophilic

d. mesophilic and heterotrophic

104

An organism displays some growth at 4°C and at 25°C. However, it grows best at 20°C. This organism would be classified as a __________.
a. mesophile
b. halophile
c. psychrotroph
d. thermophile
e. psychrophile

c. psychrotroph

105

Through metabolism, pathogens often produce acids that interfere with their own growth. __________ are/is added to media to control pH changes.
a. Buffers
b. pH indicators
c. Growth inhibitors
d. Saline
e. Vinegar

a. Buffers

106

Which of the following terms are mismatched?
a. hyperthermophiles; 0 C
b. acidophiles; low pH
c. extreme thermophiles; 100°C
d. psychrophiles; 0°C
e. extreme halophiles; 30% salt

a. hyperthermophiles; 0 C

107

When a bacterial cell reproduces by splitting into two daughter cells, the process is called __________.
a. budding
b. mitosis
c. expansion
d. regeneration
e. binary fission

e. binary fission

108

What do all of these bacteria have in common?
bacteria in the rumen of cattle and sheep
bacteria growing in the middle ear in chronic otitis media
bacteria growing on the teeth in dental plaque
a. The bacteria are all halophiles.
b. The bacteria are most likely growing in biofilms.
c. The bacteria are all obligate aerobes.
d. The bacteria are all thermophilic.
e. The bacteria are all Gram-positive.

b. The bacteria are most likely growing in biofilms.

109

Which of the following is NOT a chemical requirement of all bacteria?
a. nitrogen
b. sulfur
c. mineral elements
d. carbon
e. molecular oxygen

e. molecular oxygen

110

An organism that grows both in the presence and the absence of oxygen and uses oxygen when it is available is called a/an __________.
a. aerotolerant anaerobe
b. anaerobe
c. microaerophile
d. aerobe
e. facultative anaerobe

e. facultative anaerobe

111

A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef-heart extract is a/an __________.
a. enrichment medium
b. complex medium
c. selective medium
d. chemically defined medium
e. differential medium

b. complex medium

112

Members of the genus Clostridium display the following properties: Gram-positive bacilli endospore formation anaerobic growth Which of the following would be appropriate for the culture of members of this genus?
a. blood agar plate in an anaerobe jar
b. nutrient broth in a standard incubator
c. blood agar plate in a candle jar
d. sodium thioglycolate broth
e. both a blood agar plate in an anaerobe jar and sodium thioglycolate broth

e. both a blood agar plate in an anaerobe jar and sodium thioglycolate broth

113

Chocolate blood agar is an enriched media (containing heated blood) designed for the growth of Neisseria gonorrhea. Antibiotics are added to suppress the growth of normal microbiota that may be found in patient specimens, yet permit the growth of Neisseria gonorrhea. This medium would best be described as __________.
a. broad spectrum media
b. reduced media
c. selective media
d. nutrient agar
e. differential media

c. selective media

114

Niacin, when added to a medium, would be considered a/an __________.
a. organic growth factor
b. reducing agent
c. electron carrier
d. carbon source
e. enzyme cofactor

a. organic growth factor

115

Which of the following is NOT a step in binary fission?
a. cross-wall formation
b. invagination of the plasma membrane
c. lysis of the existing cell wall
d. replication of chromosomal DNA
e. cell elongation

c. lysis of the existing cell wall

116

If a single bacterium replicated every 30 minutes, how many bacteria would be present in 2 hours?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
e. 64

c. 16

117

In which phase of the growth curve is the population-doubling time fastest?
a. lag phase
b. log phase
c. logarithmic decline phase
d. stationary phase
e. death phase

b. log phase

118

During the lag phase, __________.
a. cells are decreasing in number
b. changes in pH occur
c. no cellular activity can be detected
d. cells are engaged in intense enzymatic activity
e. nutrients are depleted

d. cells are engaged in intense enzymatic activity

119

All of the following are true of the plate count method EXCEPT that it __________.
a. takes less than 12 hours to complete
b. measures number of viable cells
c. is dependable
d. involves cell plating and growth
e. is the most commonly used method for assay of bacterial cell number

a. takes less than 12 hours to complete

120

Which of the following is NOT a method used for the direct measurement of microbial growth?
a. serial dilutions
b. spread plates
c. turbidity
d. the most probable number (MPN) method
e. filtration

c. turbidity

121

Blood agar used to observe hemolysis or clearing around Streptococcus pyogenes colonies is an example of a/an __________.
a. reducing media
b. selective media
c. isolation media
d. differential media
e. enrichment media

d. differential media

122

Chapter 8

Chapter 8

123

Which of the following statements is NOT true of base substitutions?
a. A base substitution can result in the production of a shortened protein.
b. Base substitutions may be caused by radiation or chemical mutagens.
c. Mutations rarely involve base substitutions.
d. A base substitution may be beneficial if the affected gene encodes an enzyme with enhanced activity.
e. A base substitution may cause no change in the protein encoded by the affected gene.

c. Mutations rarely involve base substitutions.

124

A frameshift mutation in a gene encoding a protein usually __________.
a. results in a modified but functional protein
b. affects the mRNA but not the peptide
c. results in a single amino acid change upstream from the mutation
d. results in the production of a nonfunctional peptide

d. results in the production of a nonfunctional peptide

125

Which of these statements is NOT true of translation?
a. A single mRNA may have several ribosomes attached.
b. Each amino acid is coded for by a single codon.
c. The "language" of nucleotides is changed to the "language" of amino acids.
d. A molecule of tRNA can bind to both an mRNA molecule and an amino acid.
e. Three different nonsense codons code for termination of protein synthesis.

b. Each amino acid is coded for by a single codon.

126

The chemical 5-bromouracil is a mutagen because it __________.
a. is similar to thymine in structure and base-pairing ability
b. is similar to thymine in structure but not base-pairing ability
c. causes thymine-thymine dimers to form
d. is similar to uracil in structure and base-pairing ability
e. inserts between "stacked base pairs," affecting the accuracy of DNA replication

b. is similar to thymine in structure but not base-pairing ability

127

Assume a cell is grown in a culture medium containing radioactively labeled thymidine. After three cell divisions, what percentage of the cells would contain the radioactive label?
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 37.5%
d. 87.5%
e. 100%

e. 100%

128

Both transcription and DNA replication involve __________.
a. formation of molecules containing the same number of nucleotides as the parent chromosome
b. synthesis of molecules containing the nitrogenous base thymine
c. formation of polymers of amino acids
d. synthesis using a DNA template
e. synthesis of molecules containing the sugar deoxyribose

d. synthesis using a DNA template

129

Which of these answers is NOT true for positive (direct) selection?
a. An example would be the detection of bacteria resistant to ampicillin by incorporation of ampicillin into the plating medium.
b. The selective medium is designed so that only the mutant cells grow on that medium.
c. The mutant will grow on the selective medium, so there is no need for replica plating.
d. It enables detection of a rare mutant from a population containing an extremely large number of bacteria.
e. The procedure detects altered genotypes regardless of the phenotype.

e. The procedure detects altered genotypes regardless of the phenotype.

130

Auxotrophs __________.
a. cannot be separated from nonmutants in a population, because both can grow on a complete medium that contains the growth factor
b. will not grow on a complete medium that contains the growth factor, but will grow on a plate that lacks the growth factor
c. are mutants that can synthesize a nutrient the parent cannot
d. can be isolated by direct selection
e. will not grow on a plate that lacks the growth factor, but will grow on a complete medium that contains the growth factor

e. will not grow on a plate that lacks the growth factor, but will grow on a complete medium that contains the growth factor

131

The Ames test is used __________.
a. to determine if bacteria develop cancer
b. to determine the carbohydrate requirements of gram-negative bacteria
c. to verify that a chemical is mutagenic
d. to determine if a chemical is mutagenic and possibly carcinogenic
e. to determine if Salmonella can use the amino acid histidine

d. to determine if a chemical is mutagenic and possibly carcinogenic

132

Which of the following is NOT a step in translation?
a. pairing of codons with anticodons
b. transport of amino acids by tRNAs
c. initiation at the AUG start codon
d. joining of the Okazaki fragments
e. peptide bond formation

d. joining of the Okazaki fragments

133

Which of the following processes is involved in the production of diphtheria toxin by C. diphtheria or erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes?
a. transduction
b. conjugation
c. transformation
d. mutation

a. transduction

134

Your lab partner has mixed a dead tryptophan+ strain of Bacillus subtilis with a live tryptophan– strain and observes that her B. subtilis culture is now tryptophan+. The most likely explanation for this is __________.
a. conjugation
b. transformation
c. specialized transduction
d. mutation
e. generalized transductio

b. transformation

135

When the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S portion of the ribosome, the effect is to __________.
a. prevent RNA processing
b. prevent the ribosome from moving along the mRNA strand
c. prevent transcription
d. prevent peptide bond formation
e. prevent tRNAs from binding to amino acids

b. prevent the ribosome from moving along the mRNA strand

136

Which of the following statements in NOT true of plasmids?
a. They are small, circular molecules of DNA that can carry genes for heavy metal resistance.
b. They are essential for survival of the organism in most situations.
c. They may encode genes that enhance the pathogenicity of an organism.
d. They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.
e. They can be transferred between bacteria during conjugation.

b. They are essential for survival of the organism in most situations.

137

Consider the polypeptide sequence encoded by the following DNA. TACAAAGAAATT If base number 6 is changed to G, how will this affect the polypeptide?
a. A nonsense mutation will result in premature termination of the polypeptide.
b. One amino acid will be changed.
c. A frameshift mutation will result.
d. Translation will stop.
e. There will be no change in the polypeptide

e. There will be no change in the polypeptide

138

In E. coli, Hfr cells __________.
a. can pass main chromosome genes to a recipient cell
b. lack the genes typically carried on the F factor
c. fuse with gram-positive cells by way of sticky surface materials
d. do not form sex pili
e. typically pass the entire F factor to F– cells

a. can pass main chromosome genes to a recipient cell

139

Which of these statements is true about transduction?
a. Segments of DNA move from one region of DNA to another.
b. Bacteria–bacteria contact is required.
c. Genetic recombination does not occur.
d. A virus is required for transfer of genetic material.
e. Naked DNA is passed from bacterium to bacterium.

d. A virus is required for transfer of genetic material.

140

In the lac operon of E. coli, __________.
a. the structural genes for lactose utilization are constitutive
b. the gene for beta-galactosidase is regulated independently of a gene for lactose uptake by the cell
c. the structural genes cease to be transcribed if allolactose binds to the repressor
d. the operon consists entirely of three structural genes for lactose utilization
e. the repressor protein binds to the operator in the absence of lactose

e. the repressor protein binds to the operator in the absence of lactose

141

Which of these statements is NOT true about DNA replication?
a. Only one strand of the parent DNA serves as a template for a newly synthesized complementary strand.
b. DNA polymerase is required to add new nucleotides to the growing ends of the DNA strands.
c. DNA ligase joins the small DNA fragments of the lagging strand.
d. RNA polymerase synthesizes the primers.

a. Only one strand of the parent DNA serves as a template for a newly synthesized complementary strand.

142

Which one of the following is a method of vertical gene transmission?
a. conjugation
b. transduction
c. transformation
d. cell division

d. cell division

143

Which of the following requires cell-to-cell contact?
a. mutation
b. conjugation
c. transformation
d. transduction

b. conjugation

144

Which one of the following would be the most likely to yield a recombinant cell after mating?
a. Hfr cell transfers to F+ cell.
b. F– cell tranfers to Hfr cell
c. Hfr cell transfers to F– cell.
d. F– cell transfers to F+ cell

c. Hfr cell transfers to F– cell.

145

24.The major source of the genetic diversity among microorganisms upon which natural selection operates is __________.
a. conjugation
b. mutation
c. transduction
d. transformation

b. mutation

146

Chapter 9

Chapter 9

147

Which of the following is an example of a cloning vector?
a. ribosomal RNA
b. plasmid
c. human growth hormone
d. mosquito
e. tick

b. plasmid

148

Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT ________.
a. human-insulin production by bacterial cells
b. hepatitis-B-vaccine production using yeast cells
c. insertion of genes from humans or plants into bacteria or viruses
d. culturing unknown organisms
e. amplification of DNA for microbe identification

d. culturing unknown organisms

149

The process of making multiple copies of a DNA molecule is referred to as __________.
a. hybridization
b. protoplast fusion
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. amplification
e. transformation

d. amplification

150

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of obtaining the protein product called human growth hormone by recombinant DNA technology rather than extraction from cadavers?
a. cost-effectiveness
b. cross contamination
c. purity
d. speed
e. production of endotoxins

e. production of endotoxins

151

Which of these statements is true for restriction enzymes?
a. A given restriction enzyme will always recognize the same DNA sequence, but it will cut differently depending on the species of origin of the DNA.
b. Restriction enzymes are useful in genetic engineering when they make staggered cuts in DNA.
c. Any restriction enzyme can cut any piece of DNA.
d. A different restriction enzyme must be used to open the vector DNA than to excise the gene sequence to be cloned.
e. Each restriction enzyme is able to make a staggered cut at its recognition site.

b. Restriction enzymes are useful in genetic engineering when they make staggered cuts in DNA.

152

When two DNA pieces cut with the same restriction enzyme are combined, sticky ends will __________.
a. associate because of DNA ligase
b. associate only if they are double-stranded
c. associate by covalent bonds
d. associate by complementary base pairing and hydrogen bonds
e. not associate

d. associate by complementary base pairing and hydrogen bonds

153

If DNA ligase were NOT used in the creation of a recombinant plasmid, __________.
a. links between guanine and cytosine would not occur
b. base-pairing would occur but the sugar phosphate backbone would not be connected
c. links between adenine and thymine would not occur
d. hydrogen bonds between complementary bases could not form
e. the bacterium to receive the recombinant plasmid would not be competent and thus would be unable to take up the plasmid

b. base-pairing would occur but the sugar phosphate backbone would not be connected

154

A good cloning vector __________.
a. should not be capable of replication
b. should not be able to be cut by more than one restriction enzyme
c. should have a high concentration of guanine
d. should be readily degraded in the host
e. should have a gene or genes that allows for selection of transformed host cells

e. should have a gene or genes that allows for selection of transformed host cells

155

Which of the following is NOT true of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
a. A heat-stable DNA polymerase is used in the reaction process.
b. Short pieces of DNA called primers are added to the reaction mixtures.
c. An automated thermocycler is used to heat and cool the reaction samples.
d. Large amounts of DNA must be isolated from the source organism.
e. Billions of copies of a DNA sequence are made in a few hours.

d. Large amounts of DNA must be isolated from the source organism.

156

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of genetic modification?
a. to remove antibiotic resistant plasmids from bacteria
b. to create hormones such as insulin or human growth hormone
c. to create proteins used in vaccines (e.g., hepatitis B vaccine)
d. to create multiple copies of a gene of interest
e. to modify the characteristics of an organism

a. to remove antibiotic resistant plasmids from bacteria

157

Recombinant DNA can be introduced into a host cell by any of the following methods EXCEPT __________.
a. microinjection
b. protoplast fusion
c. transformation
d. polymerase chain reaction
e. electroporation

d. polymerase chain reaction

158

For the introduction of a genetically modified plasmid into E. coli, __________.
a. a gene gun must be used
b. calcium chloride and heat shock can be used
c. protoplast fusion must be used
d. no treatment is needed, because the cells are naturally competent
e. microinjection must be used

b. calcium chloride and heat shock can be used

159

Which of the following statements correctly differentiates a genomic library from a cDNA library?
a. cDNA libraries can be used for sequencing, but they cannot be transcribed and translated. Genomic libraries can be used for sequencing and for production of the desired protein product.
b. A genomic library contains fragments of the entire DNA in an organism's genome. A cDNA library contains the coding sequences of eukaryotic genes (minus the introns).
c. A genomic library contains only noncoding DNA sequences, whereas a cDNA library contains only coding sequences.
d. Genomic libraries are prepared from eukaryotes, and cDNA libraries are prepared from prokaryotes.
e. Genomic libraries contain only those genes that a cell is currently expressing, whereas cDNA libraries contain all of the cell's genes, whether expressed or not.

b. A genomic library contains fragments of the entire DNA in an organism's genome. A cDNA library contains the coding sequences of eukaryotic genes (minus the introns).

160

During the Southern blotting technique, what is the purpose of transferring the DNA fragments from the gel to a nitrocellulose filter?
a. This step prepares the DNA fragments for PCR.
b. This step selects and transfers only the genes of interest.
c. This step prepares the DNA for digestion by restriction enzymes.
d. This step separates the two complementary DNA strands.
e. This step attaches the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate, which then can be probed.

e. This step attaches the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate, which then can be probed.

161

An ampicillin-sensitive culture of E. coli is transformed with a plasmid that contains the gene of interest plus an ampicillin-resistant gene. If it is then plated on an ampicillin-containing growth medium, __________.
a. only the lactose-positive bacteria will grow
b. no bacteria will grow
c. only the bacteria with the plasmid will grow
d. all gram-negative bacteria will grow
e. only the ampicillin-sensitive bacteria will grow

c. only the bacteria with the plasmid will grow

162

Which of the following might specifically be used as part of a reverse-genetics approach to studying a gene?
a. reverse transcriptase
b. RNA interference
c. PCR
d. Southern blotting
e. Ti plasmid

b. RNA interference

163

In the blue-white screening procedure, bacteria that are transformed with recombinant plasmid and cultured in media containing ampicillin and X-gal will __________.
a. produce blue colonies
b. grow more rapidly than cells without recombinant DNA
c. produce white colonies
d. not grow in this medium
e. produce the enzyme beta-galactosidase

c. produce white colonies

164

Which of the following is NOT a step in Southern blotting?
a. separation of DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis
b. addition of a radioactive probe made from the gene of interest
c. transfer of DNA fragments to filters
d. addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase
e. digestion of sample DNA with restriction enzyme

d. addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase

165

Genetic technology has enabled screening for a variety of genetic conditions, and use of this technology is becoming more widely available. Which of the following is likely to become an important issue that will need to be addressed?
a. the need for legislation to protect the privacy of individuals' genetic information
b. the use of DNA analysis in criminal investigations
c. the alteration of human phenotypes to prevent early disease
d. the use of DNA analysis in anthropological studies

a. the need for legislation to protect the privacy of individuals' genetic information

166

For Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be used to introduce foreign DNA into a plant cell, that DNA must first be __________.
a. inserted in an A. tumefaciens plasmid other than the Ti plasmid
b. inserted into the main chromosome of A. tumefaciens
c. inserted into the T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid of A. tumefaciens
d. inserted into the Ti plasmid of A. tumefaciens outside the T-DNA region
e. isolated from the crown gall using the appropriate restriction enzyme

c. inserted into the T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid of A. tumefaciens

167

Which of the following statements correctly differentiates biotechnology and rDNA technology?
a. Biotechnology includes genetic modification of eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells, whereas rDNA technology exclusively involves the genetic modification of bacteria.
b. Biotechnology is concerned only with the production of proteins, whereas rDNA technology is concerned exclusively with DNA.
c. Biotechnology involves any use of microorganisms or cells to make products, regardless of the means used. rDNA technology involves the specific use of molecular modifications in microorganisms or cells, in which a gene from one cell is inserted into another cell, altering the recipient cell to make some desired product.
d. Biotechnology includes techniques for gene amplification, whereas rDNA technology includes techniques for altering the nucleotide sequence of an organism's DNA

c. Biotechnology involves any use of microorganisms or cells to make products, regardless of the means used. rDNA technology involves the specific use of molecular

168

The process of making multiple copies of a DNA molecule is referred to as __________.
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. amplification
c. hybridization
d. transformation
e. protoplast fusion

b. amplification

169

In genetic engineering, antibiotic resistance genes are often cloned into a vector to __________.
a. make direct selection of a clone possible
b. enhance survival of the cloned cell
c. select for cells that cannot grow
d. kill bacteria

a. make direct selection of a clone possible

170

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of genetic modification?
a. creation of hormones such as insulin or human growth hormone
b. creation of proteins used in vaccines (e.g., hepatitis B vaccine)
c. creation of multiple copies of a gene of interest
d. modification of the characteristics of an organism
e. removal of antibiotic-resistant plasmids from bacteria

e. removal of antibiotic-resistant plasmids from bacteria

171

The following steps are necessary to clone eukaryotic genes in bacteria. What is the third step?
a. transcription
b. remove introns
c. reverse transcription of mRNA
d. splice exons together

d. splice exons together

172

E. coli may pick up a recombinant plasmid from a solution by __________.
a. transduction
b. protoplast fusion
c. conjugation
d. transformation

d. transformation

173

Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. hepatitis B vaccine production using yeast cells
b. amplification of DNA for microbe identification
c. human insulin production by bacterial cells
d. insertion of genes from humans or plants into bacteria or viruses
e. culturing unknown organisms

e. culturing unknown organisms

174

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of obtaining the protein product human growth hormone by recombinant DNA technology rather than extraction from cadavers?
a. production of endotoxins
b. elimination of the need to extract the protein from tissues that might harbor pathogens
c. speed
d. cost-effectiveness
e. purity

a. production of endotoxins

175

If you insert the gene for Bt toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis into a tomato plant, the resulting plants will __________.
a. be toxic to humans who eat the tomatoes
b. die
c. have a Bacillus infection
d. be toxic to insects that eat them

d. be toxic to insects that eat them

176

Chapter 13

Chapter 13

177

Viruses possess genetic material comprised of DNA or __________.
a. RNA
b. NADPH
c. plasmids
d. guanine
e. ATP

a. RNA

178

Which type of microscope is needed to view a virus in the laboratory?
a. darkfield
b. fluorescent
c. compound
d. electron
e. brightfield

d. electron

179

Which of the following are possible strategies for treating viral infections?
a. blocking uncoating of the virus after entry
b. blocking biosynthesis of viral nucleic acids
c. blocking insertion of viral DNA into the host cell chromosomes
d. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors
e. All of the listed strategies are correct.

d. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors

180

A double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus that contains reverse transcriptase belongs to which family?
a. Poxviridae
b. Hepadnaviridae
c. Picornaviridae
d. Rhabdoviridae
e. Retroviridae

b. Hepadnaviridae

181

Members of the Adenoviridae cause __________.
a. influenza
b. the common cold
c. hepatitis
d. smallpox
e. cold sores

b. the common cold

182

Which method cannot be used to culture viruses in a laboratory?
a. nutrient agar culture media
b. embryonated eggs
c. live animals
d. tissue culture
e. primates

a. nutrient agar culture media

183

Cell lines derived from transformed (cancerous) cells are called __________.
a. plaques
b. monolayers
c. continuous cell lines
d. primary cell lines
e. embryonated

c. continuous cell lines

184

During the bacteriophage lysogenic cycle, __________.
a. new phage DNA is synthesized
b. phage DNA is inserted into the host chromosome
c. the host cell lyses, releasing new virions
d. the burst time is shortened

b. phage DNA is inserted into the host chromosome

185

After the attachment and entry of a virus into a host cell, what is the next step in the multiplication of
animal viruses?
a. synthesis of capsid proteins
b. transcription of "early" genes
c. transcription of "late" genes
d. viral DNA is degraded by enzymes
e. uncoating

e. uncoating

186

An example of a latent virus infection is __________.
a. shingles
b. influenza
c. measles
d. polio
e. smallpox

a. shingles

187

A virus may contain any of the following EXCEPT (a) __________.

a. ribosomes
b. ssRNA
c. spike proteins
d. capsid proteins
e. lipid envelope

a. ribosomes

188

Viruses that use RNA as a template for transcribing DNA include __________.
a. Retroviridae
b. Togaviridae
c. Rhabdoviridae
d. Picornaviridae
e. Herpesviridae

a. Retroviridae

189

All of the following are prion diseases EXCEPT __________.
a. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
b. kuru
c. fatal familial insomnia
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
e. Wiles-Davidoff syndrome

e. Wiles-Davidoff syndrome

190

Which of the following terms are NOT correctly matched?
a. Picornaviridae; common cold
b. Herpesviridae; infectious mononucleosis
c. Flaviviridae; hepatitis
d. Picornaviridae; polio
e. Poxviridae; chickenpox

e. Poxviridae; chickenpox

191

In polio virus replication, the function of the antisense (– strand) RNA is to __________.
a. be translated for the production of capsid proteins
b. enhance the pathogenicity of the viral toxins
c. allow a virus to enter the nucleus
d. become incorporated into the capsid proteins
e. serve as a template for the production of sense (+ strand) RNA

e. serve as a template for the production of sense (+ strand) RNA

192

How might a virus pick up a human oncogene?
a. specialized transduction
b. reverse transcription
c. transformation
d. viral conversion

a. specialized transduction

193

Influenza viruses are classified according to their hemagglutin and __________ proteins.
a. nucleic
b. amphiphilic
c. polymorphic
d. neuraminidase
e. arabinose

d. neuraminidase

194

To what does the term viral species refer?
a. a group of viruses that are reproductively isolated
b. a group of viruses sharing the same disease symptoms
c. viruses grouped according to their susceptibility to antibiotics
d. a group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and structure
e. viruses grouped according to growth on selective media

d. a group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and structure

195

Which of these enzymes is necessary for the replication of a + strand RNA virus?
a. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
b. reverse transcriptase
c. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
d. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
e. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

a. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

196

Which of these statements is NOT true?
a. Enveloped viruses are released from the cell by budding.
b. Attachment of animal viruses to host cells is random and nonspecific.
c. Penetration of enveloped viruses can occur by a process called fusion.
d. Uncoating can occur because of host cell lysosome action.
e. Animal viral DNA that is integrated into the host chromosome is called a provirus.

b. Attachment of animal viruses to host cells is random and nonspecific.

197

Which of these processes of viral multiplication is most likely to damage the host cell?
a. release of enveloped viruses
b. release of nonenveloped viruses
c. viral entry into host cells by fusion
d. uncoating
e. reverse transcription of retroviral RNA

b. release of nonenveloped viruses

198

Which of the following are possible strategies for treating viral infections?
a. blocking uncoating of the virus after entry
b. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors
c. blocking insertion of viral DNA into the host cell chromosomes
d. blocking biosynthesis of viral nucleic acids
e. All of the listed choices are possible strategies for treating viral infections.

b. blocking viral attachment to host cell receptors

199

The protein coat of a virus is called the __________.
a. capsomere
b. envelope
c. capsid
d. viral membrane

c. capsid

200

How would you know that viruses were multiplying in a confluent lawn of E. coli on a solid culture
medium?
a. The bacterial colonies would swell.
b. There would be small zones of clearing in the bacterial culture.
c. There would be small blue spots on the bacterial culture.
d. The bacterial culture would grow faster.

b. There would be small zones of clearing in the bacterial culture.

201

What is the name given to the viral DNA incorporated into a lysogenic cell?
a. prophage
b. latent phage
c. oncogenic virus
d. bacteriophage

a. prophage

202

Chapter 14

Chapter 14

203

Germ-free (gnotobiotic) animals often are more susceptible to infections and serious disease than are animals with a typical complement of normal microbiota. Based on this observation, which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion?
a. Normal microbiota are parasitic.
b. Normal microbiota are incapable of causing disease.
c. Normal microbiota always result in opportunistic infections.
d. Normal microbiota provide supplemental nutrition to the host.
e. Normal microbiota stimulate the development of the immune system.

e. Normal microbiota stimulate the development of the immune system.

204

In a healthy human, resident microorganisms would be found in all of the following areas EXCEPT the __________.
a. tooth and gum surfaces
b. nasal passages
c. conjunctiva
d. bloodstream
e. lower urethra

d. bloodstream

205

Health care professionals who fail to use aseptic techniques can cause __________.
a. nosocomial infections
b. zoonoses
c. predisposing factors
d. herd immunity
e. pathogens

a. nosocomial infections

206

In the human intestinal tract, E. coli produces vitamins beneficial to the host and can inhibit pathogen growth. In turn, the bacterium is supplied with nutrients and an environment for growth. This symbiotic relationship between E. coli and its host is an example of ________.

A. commensalism
B. opportunism
C. parasitism
D. antagonism
E. mutualism

E. mutualism

207

Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism (also known as competitive exclusion)?
a. microbes competing with other microbes for nutrients
b. microbes producing vitamins and growth factors that can be utilized by the host
c. microbes utilizing oxygen necessary for the growth of other microbes
d. microbes producing acidic compounds that limit the growth of many bacteria
e. microbes producing compounds inhibitory to other microbes

b. microbes producing vitamins and growth factors that can be utilized by the host

208

An infection transmitted by a handkerchief or tissue is transmitted by __________.
a. common vehicle transmission
b. a vector
c. droplet transmission
d. direct contact
e. indirect contact

e. indirect contact

209

Which of the following is NOT necessary to satisfy Koch's postulates?
a. The organism must cause disease through toxin production.
b. The organism must be grown in pure culture outside the diseased host.
c. The organism must be re-isolated from the experimentally infected diseased animal and shown to be identical to the original isolate.
d. The organism must cause the disease when introduced from pure culture into a healthy host.
e. The organism must be present in every case of the disease

a. The organism must cause disease through toxin production.

210

Following coronary artery bypass surgery, seven patients develop Rhodococcus bronchialis infections. Cultures of the operating rooms, Nurse A, and Nurse B are taken. R. bronchialis grows from the hand and nasal swabs of Nurse A. The patients' infections are an example of a/an __________.
a. emerging infectious disease
b. vector-borne infection
c. endemic infection
d. nosocomial infection
e. epidemic infection

d. nosocomial infection

211

Women who have a healthy population of Lactobacillus spp. as part of the normal vaginal microbiota are less likely to get yeast infections. Which of the following terms is used to explain this observation?
a. competitive exclusion
b. synergism
c. commensalism
d. mutualism
e. parasitism

a. competitive exclusion

212

The occurrence of streptococcal bronchopneumonia in an individual recovering from influenza is an example of a __________.
a. sporadic infection
b. secondary infection
c. latent infection
d. subacute infection
e. chronic infection

b. secondary infection

213

Infections in which the pathogen is distributed throughout the body are referred to as generalized infections or __________.
a. emerging infections
b. systemic infections
c. zoonoses
d. local infections
e. focal infections

b. systemic infections

214

The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream is referred to as __________.
a. bacteremia
b. edema
c. bacterial dimorphism
d. symbiosis
e. cytokine storm

a. bacteremia

215

Which of these diseases does not have a human reservoir?
a. Candida albicans
b. gonorrhea
c. HIV
d. diphtheria
e. tetanus

e. tetanus

216

Which of these events is an example of contact transmission?
a. Tuberculosis is spread from one person to another after traveling through the air for several meters.
b. Several people become infected with Listeria after consuming contaminated ice cream.
c. A person drinks from a cup used by another individual.
d. A person develops plague from a flea bite.
e. Vacationers develop shigellosis, caused by the intestinal pathogen Shigella spp. after drinking contaminated water

c. A person drinks from a cup used by another individual.

217

Which of these disease stages is most likely to be altered in length if the number of infecting organisms at the start of the infection is very high?
a. incubation period
b. period of illness
c. period of decline
d. period of convalescence
e. prodromal period

a. incubation period

218

Which of the following events does NOT occur in diseases transmitted by vectors?
a. In biological transmission, the vector multiplies in the human host.
b. In biological transmission, vectors can spread pathogens by vomiting.
c. In biological transmission, pathogens multiply in the vector, which can transmit the pathogens by injecting saliva directly into the host.
d. In biological transmission, a vector transmits pathogens by defecating while taking a blood meal.
e. In mechanical transmission, insects contact feces containing pathogenic bacteria and transfer it to food.

a. In biological transmission, the vector multiplies in the human host.

219

Which of the following is the third stage of a disease?
a. period of decline
b. period of illness
c. prodromal period
d. incubation period
e. period of convalescence

b. period of illness

220

The morbidity rate is best defined as __________.
a. the number of individuals, relative to the population, affected by a particular disease in a period of time
b. the decrease in death rate following effective vaccination
c. the immunization rate for notifiable diseases that can be prevented through vaccination programs
d. the number of individuals, relative to the population, who have died as a result of a particular disease in a period of time
e. the percentage of infectious diseases that are nationally notifiable

e. the percentage of infectious diseases that are nationally notifiable

221

19. Ingesting lactic acid bacteria to prevent colonization by intestinal pathogens such as Salmonella enterica during antibiotic therapy is an example of __________.
a. parasitism
b. probiotics
c. opportunism
d. vaccination
e. chemotherapy

b. probiotics

222

An example of descriptive epidemiology is __________.
a. a comparison of drug effectiveness in two groups of patients
b. the first report of a disease occurrence
c. Florence Nightingale's studies of disease transmission in soldiers and civilians during the Crimean War
d. a study comparing disease rates in vaccinated and unvaccinated individuals
e. John Snow's study of the London cholera outbreak from 1848 to 1849

John Snow's study of the London cholera outbreak from 1848 to 1849

223

The fungus Coccidioides immitis is found in the soil. Humans contract coccidioidomycosis by inhaling fungal spores. Which of these terms applies to the role of soil in transmission of coccidioidomycosis?
a. Soil is the carrier.
b. Soil is the reservoir.
c. Soil is the predisposing factor.
d. Soil is the vector.

b. Soil is the reservoir.

224

Which of the following diseases does NOT share a commonality with the others?
a. rabies
b. Yersinia pestis
c. Hantavirus
d. Brucella
e. All of the listed diseases share a commonality; they are all zoonoses.

e. All of the listed diseases share a commonality; they are all zoonoses

225

Which one of these diseases is noncommunicable?
a. rabies
b. the common cold
c. influenza
d. botulism

d. botulism

226

In order to understand the full scope of a disease, we take its occurrence into account. The __________ of a disease is the number of people in a population who develop a disease at a specified time.
a. prevalence
b. incidence
c. sporadic infection
d. endemic infection

a. prevalence

and

b. incidence

227

Chapter 15

Chapter 15

228

1. Which disease is correctly matched with the common portal of entry?
a. influenza; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract
b. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract
c. chlamydia; skin
d. hookworm; mucous membranes of genitourinary tract
e. measles; parenteral route

b. poliomyelitis; mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract

229

If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an animal bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as the __________.
a. connective tissue
b. gastrointestinal route
c. respiratory route
d. skin
e. parenteral route

e. parenteral route

230

The ID50 for cutaneous anthrax due to Bacillus anthracis is 10 to 50 endospores, while the ID50 for inhalation anthrax is 10,000 to 20,000 endospores. This means that __________.
a. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax
b. both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired
c. inhalation anthrax is easier to acquire than cutaneous anthrax
d. neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax can easily be acquired
e. not enough information is available to answer this

a. cutaneous anthrax is easier to acquire than inhalation anthrax

231

Which would be the most UNLIKELY location to find adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium?
a. cell wall
b. glycocalyx
c. ribosomes
d. capsule
e. fimbriae

c. ribosomes

232

What cell structures does Neisseria gonorrhoeae use to attach and enter host epithelial cells?
a. cell wall waxes
b. fimbriae
c. flagella
d. capsules
e. M proteins

b. fimbriae

233

Which of these conditions would NOT affect the ability of Streptococcus mutans to attach to teeth?
a. the lack of sucrose
b. the lack of the enzyme glucosyltransferase
c. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque
d. the lack of a glycocalyx
e. the inability to form dextran

c. the absence of Actinomyces, a bacterium that can be part of dental plaque

234

Which of these statements is NOT true for bacterial capsules?
a. For Streptococcus pneumoniae, the encapsulated strain is more virulent.
b. Pathogenic and nonpathogenic bacteria can produce capsules.
c. The importance of the capsule to virulence for Streptococcus pneumoniae can be determined because there are strains both with and without the capsule.
d. Capsules related to virulence are produced by the causative agents of anthrax and bubonic plague.
e. Immune system antibodies are not produced against a capsule

e. Immune system antibodies are not produced against a capsule

235

Capsules play a role in the virulence of all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. Bacillus anthracis

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

236

Which of these substances are most important in the establishment of biofilms?
a. invasins
b. adhesins
c. exotoxins
d. hemolysins
e. siderophores

b. adhesins

237

Which one of these pairs is NOT correctly matched?
a. siderophore; traps iron
b. leukocidin; lyses WBC membranes
c. collagenase; breaks down connective tissue
d. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots
e. IgA protease; digest antibodies

d. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots

238

Which of these eukaryotic molecules/structures can be responsible for movement of bacteria within host cells?
a. pseudopods
b. flagella
c. invasins
d. cilia
e. actin molecules

e. actin molecules

239

Which of the following statements is NOT true of A-B exotoxins?
a. The B portion of the toxin binds to surface receptors on host cells.
b. They consist of two polypeptide components.
c. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria.
d. Many exotoxins are A-B toxins.
e. The A portion of the toxin is the active component

c. They are produced only by gram-negative bacteria.

240

The LD50 of Vibrio cholerae is 108 cells through the oral route. If the bacterial cells are ingested with bicarbonate, the LD50 drops to 104. Which of these explanations is the most likely?
a. Sodium bicarbonate decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.
b. Sodium bicarbonate inactivates Vibrio cholerae.
c. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.
d. Vibrio cholerae makes toxins only in the presence of stomach acid.
e. Stomach acid increases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.

c. Stomach acid decreases the virulence of Vibrio cholerae.

241

Which statement is true of endotoxins?
a. They are disease specific.
b. They are proteins.
c. They are released upon cell lysis.
d. They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.
e. They increase blood pressure.

c. They are released upon cell lysis.

242

A newly identified bacterial pathogen has been shown to cause disease in humans, disrupting the production of some proteins by interfering with the function of the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells. Under specific growth conditions, this bacterial strain secretes a protein that appears to be responsible for the pathology of the disease. This protein is composed of two polypeptide chains, one of which binds to a receptor on the surface of liver cells, stimulating the uptake of the protein by endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the other polypeptide component interferes with the activity of ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum. This bacterial protein will most likely be classified as a/an __________.
a. A-B toxin
b. superantigen
c. membrane-disrupting toxin
d. invasin
e. bacterial kinase

a. A-B toxin

243

Which statement is NOT true of endotoxins?
a. They can lyse amebocytes found in crab hemolymph.
b. Endotoxins are produced by Neisseria meningitidis and E. coli.
c. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production.
d. They are more heat-resistant than exotoxins are.
e. They can induce chills, fever, aches, clotting, shock, and miscarriage.

c. They are eliminated from the body as a result of antitoxin production.

244

Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be associated with the development of cancer?
a. loss of contact inhibition
b. stimulation of interferon production
c. cell death
d. inclusion bodies
e. cell fusion

a. loss of contact inhibition

245

Which of these events leads to all of the others in a pyrogenic (fever) response?
a. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.
b. The body's thermostat is set to a higher level, and fever occurs.
c. IL-1 is released by macrophages.
d. The hypothalamus releases prostaglandins.
e. IL-1 travels via the blood to the hypothalamus.

a. Endotoxin is released from the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.

246

The pathogenicity of which of the following is NOT the result of lysogeny?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Clostridium botulinum

d. Clostridium tetani

247

Which of the following would be the most UNLIKELY location to find adhesin molecules on a newly discovered bacterium?
a. ribosomes
b. fimbriae
c. glycocalyx
d. capsule
e. cell wall

a. ribosomes

248

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
a. collagenase; breaks down connective tissue
b. leukocidin; lyses WBC membranes
c. siderophore; traps iron
d. IgA protease; digests antibodies
e. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots

e. coagulase; lyses fibrin clots

249

Which of these effects is most likely to occur if a pathogen enters the body by a portal of entry other than the preferred one?
a. Pathogens cannot enter by alternate routes.
b. A milder disease will result.
c. The exact same disease will result.
d. A more severe disease will result.

b. A milder disease will result.

250

Which one of the following virulence factors contributes most to the spread of disease in the body?
a. hyaluronidase
b. siderophore production
c. endotoxin production
d. hemolysin

a. hyaluronidase

251

Based on the following LD50 values, which microbe is the most virulent? Assume each bacterium enters through the appropriate portal of entry.
a. Shigella: 10 cells
b. Cryptosporidium: 50 cells
c. E. coli O157: 1000 cells
d. Vibrio cholerae: 108 cells

a. Shigella: 10 cells

252

Which of these is a cell wall component that contributes to invasiveness?
a. M protein
b. coagulase
c. endotoxin
d. hemolysin

a. M protein

253

Which of the following diseases CANNOT be prevented by toxoids?
a. Gram-negative septic shock
b. botulism
c. diphtheria
d. tetanus

a. Gram-negative septic shock

254

Chapter 16

Chapter 16

255

Which of these molecules or structures is/are NOT associated with innate immunity?
a. macrophages
b. lysozyme
c. antibodies
d. mucous membranes
e. phagocytes

c. antibodies

256

The epidermis __________.
a. is below the dermis
b. serves as one of the more common portals of entry for pathogens
c. is composed of loosely packed cells
d. is composed largely of epidermal cells, all of which are alive
e. contains the protein keratin

e. contains the protein keratin

257

The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely because of __________.
a. commensalism
b. parasitism
c. microbial antagonism
d. impaired phagocytosis
e. complement inactivation

c. microbial antagonism

258

The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. the ciliary escalator
b. mucus-coated hairs
c. the epiglottis
d. ciliated cells
e. the lacrimal apparatus

e. the lacrimal apparatus

259

Which of the following statements about sebum is NOT true?
a. Accutane limits acne by preventing its formation.
b. It has antimicrobial properties.
c. Its metabolism can result in acne.
d. It raises the pH of skin.
e. It is secreted by sebaceous glands

d. It raises the pH of skin.

260

One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked eosinophilia. This might be suggestive of __________.
a. a parasitic infection
b. a viral infection
c. a bacterial infection
d. an allergic (hypersensitivity) reaction

d. an allergic (hypersensitivity) reaction

261

Which of these structures are NOT part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
a. wandering macrophages
b. alveolar macrophages
c. lymphocytes
d. microglial cells
e. Kupffer's cells

c. lymphocytes

262

Which answer is NOT true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe?
a. The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes limits adherence.
b. Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence.
c. A capsule limits adherence.
d. Adherence is a critical step in phagocytosis.
e. Complement molecules attached to the microbe can enhance adherence.

b. Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence.

263

Which answer is true for bacterial destruction by phagocytosis?
a. Phagolysosomes have a neutral pH.
b. Listeria monocytogenes is killed within the phagolysosome.
c. Myeloperoxidase in lysosomes is involved in the formation of HOCl.
d. Toxic oxygen products, such as hydrogen peroxide, are removed.
e. Lipids and proteins, but not nucleic acids, can be digested inside lysosomes.

c. Myeloperoxidase in lysosomes is involved in the formation of HOCl.

264

The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe is called __________.
a. fusion
b. chemotaxis
c. ingestion
d. adherence
e. cytolysis

d. adherence

265

Which answer is NOT true of the inflammatory process?
a. The area becomes red because of a decrease in capillary diameter.
b. Kinins cause increased capillary permeability.
c. Leukotrienes cause increased capillary permeability.
d. Swelling occurs because of vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
e. Edema occurs.

a. The area becomes red because of a decrease in capillary diameter.

266

Which of the following statements is NOT true of inflammation?
a. Vasodilation causes redness in affected tissues.
b. Many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation.
c. Inflammation can be triggered by microbial infection, burns, exposure to chemicals, or trauma.
d. Histamine released by damaged host cells can result in vasodilation.
e. Granulocytes that have died are commonly engulfed by macrophages.

b. Many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation.

267

Activation of the complement cascade __________.
a. reduces swelling in affected tissues
b. can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis
c. can reduce inflammation
d. prevents cleavage of complement proteins, such as C3 and C5
e. typically reduces the ability of phagocytes to engulf microbes

b. can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis

268

Complement can be activated by all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. antigen–antibody binding
b. opsonization
c. mannose-binding lectins
d. the presence of host tissue
e. contact with a pathogen

d. the presence of host tissue

269

Which of the following statements is NOT true of nitric oxide (NO)?
a. It is of little value in killing microbes or tumor cells.
b. It can be produced by blood vessel endothelial cells.
c. It can cause relaxation of blood vessel smooth muscle.
d. Excessive production can cause septic shock.
e. It can be produced by macrophages that have been induced to produce NO synthase

a. It is of little value in killing microbes or tumor cells.

270

Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to see?
a. agglutination of the red blood cells
b. lysis of the red blood cells
c. opsonization of the red blood cells
d. phagocytosis
e. shrinkage (crenation) of the red blood cells

b. lysis of the red blood cells

271

Which of the following statements is NOT true of the classical pathway of complement activation?
a. C1 is activated by an antigen–antibody complex
b. C5b joins C6, C7, C8, and C9 to form the membrane attack complex.
c. Activated C2a and C4b activate C3.
d. C3 is the first component to be activated.
e. Activated C1 activates C2 and C4.

d. C3 is the first component to be activated.

272

Which of the following occurs first, setting in motion the remaining events?
a. The macrophages and dendritic cells release cytokines.
b. Adaptive immune responses are initiated.
c. Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) are produced and damage microbes in a variety of ways.
d. Additional dendritic cells are attracted to the infection site by AMPs.
e. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells attach to pathogen-associated microbial patterns (PAMPS) on invading microorganisms.

e. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells attach to pathogen-associated microbial patterns (PAMPS) on invading microorganisms.

273

Interferons ___________.
a. are both host-specific and virus-specific
b. are useful only for treating viral infections
c. are host-specific but not virus-specific
d. can protect any host against any virus
e. are virus-specific but not host-specific

c. are host-specific but not virus-specific

274

Which of these structures are NOT part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
a. microglial cells
b. alveolar macrophages
c. wandering macrophages
d. Kupffer's cells
e. lymphocytes

e. lymphocytes

275

All of the following cells demonstrate phagocytic activity EXCEPT __________.
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. neutrophils
d. eosinophils

a. lymphocytes

276

Which of these answers best describes the relationship between humans and most of their skin and intestinal normal microbiota?
a. mutualism
b. parasitism
c. pathological
d. commensalism

a. mutualism

277

Histamine causes all of the following reactions. Which occurs first?
a. redness
b. vasodilation
c. swelling
d. pain

b. vasodilation

278

The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to __________.
a. interleukin-1
b. gram-negative bacteria
c. complement
d. interleukin-2

a. interleukin-1

279

Propionibacterium acnes is norma True l flora of sebaceous glands of the skin.

True or False

True

280

Acne can be prevented with antibiotics.
True or False

False

281

Chapter 17

Chapter 17

282

1. Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting immunity?
a. A person survives an infectious disease.
b. An adult receives antiserum.
c. An adult receives gamma globulin.
d. A baby receives antibodies to chicken pox across the placenta.
e. A baby receives antibodies against many pathogens through breastfeeding.

a. A person survives an infectious disease.

283

2. The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called __________.
a. passive immunity
b. natural selection
c. adaptive immunity
d. innate immunity
e. artificial immunity

c. adaptive immunity

284

HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing this, you can conclude that __________.
a. these viruses have T-independent antigens
b. B cells do not recognize viral antigens
c. regulatory T cells are killed by the virus
d. these viruses have T-dependent antigens
e. CD4 T cells need help from B cells to recognize viral antigens

a. these viruses have T-independent antigens

285

Cyclosporine is a drug sometimes used to prevent transplant rejection after organ transplant surgery. This drug specifically disrupts cell-mediated immunity by cytotoxic T cells. Which of these events can be predicted based on this information?
a. Antigen presentation by macrophages and dendritic cells will be impaired.
b. Antibody production will NOT be disrupted in the recipient.
c. The recipient will be susceptible to repeated infections with common bacteria such as staphylococci and streptococci.
d. T helper cells will no longer be produced.
e. Autoimmune disorders will be a potential side effect.

b. Antibody production will NOT be disrupted in the recipient.

286

Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against __________.
a. extracellular viruses
b. toxins
c. bacteria free in body fluids
d. viruses free in body fluids
e. intracellular bacteria and viruses

e. intracellular bacteria and viruses

287

Which of these cell types is NOT involved in cell-mediated immunity?
a. plasma cells
b. T helper cells
c. T cytotoxic cells
d. T regulatory cells
e. TH1 cells

a. plasma cells

288

Which of the following statements is NOT true of antigens?
a. They can include nonmicrobial molecules, such as pollen, egg white, and blood cell surface molecules.
b. They often have a molecular weight of less than 10,000.
c. They are typically nonself molecules.
d. They are often proteins or polysaccharides.
e. They are often surface molecules on microbes.

b. They often have a molecular weight of less than 10,000.

289

The most abundant Ig in the blood serum is __________.
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. G
e. M

d. G

290

Which of the following statements is NOT of the IgA antibody class?
a. It can be found as a monomer in serum.
b. It can trigger the complement cascade.
c. It prevents pathogens from attaching to mucosal surfaces.
d. It is the most abundant antibody class in body secretions.
e. It is a dimer in its most effective form.

b. It can trigger the complement cascade.

291

Which of the following would be a possible consequence of a disorder that selectively destroys the T regulatory cells in a patient?
a. impaired antibody production
b. increased incidence of certain cancers
c. frequent infections with parasitic pathogens
d. frequent infections with viral and fungal pathogens
e. autoimmune diseases

e. autoimmune diseases

292

Which of the following are NOT antigen-presenting cells ?
a. B cells
b. All of the listed choices are antigen-presenting cells.
c. macrophages
d. dendritic cells
e. helper T cells

b. All of the listed choices are antigen-presenting cells.

293

Which of these processes is in the proper sequence?
a. IgE is formed; antigen binds IgE; IgE binds to mast cells; mast cells bind to basophils; histamine is released.
b. IgE is formed; IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; antigen binds IgE; histamine is released.
c. IgE is formed; antigen binds IgE; histamine is released; IgE binds to mast cells and basophils.
d. IgE is formed; antigen binds IgE; IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; histamine is released.
e. IgE is formed; IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; histamine is released; antigen binds IgE.

a. IgE is formed; antigen binds IgE; IgE binds to mast cells; mast cells bind to

294

Which of these lists is in the correct order of differentiation?
a. B cells to stem cells to plasma cells
b. B cells to plasma cells to stem cells
c. stem cells to plasma cells to B cells
d. stem cells to B cells to plasma cells
e. plasma cells to B cells to stem cells

d. stem cells to B cells to plasma cells

295

Which of these statements is NOT true of antibody molecules?
a. Antibody molecules can directly destroy antigens.
b. Cell-bound antibody molecules can bind complement, triggering the complement cascade.
c. Cell-bound antibody molecules can initiate a process that results in cell lysis.
d. Antibody molecules can enhance phagocytosis of the antigen.
e. Cell-bound antibody molecules can bind cells that in turn release chemical compounds that

a. Antibody molecules can directly destroy antigens.

296

A property of T cells, but not B cells, is their __________.
a. ability to differentiate into memory cells
b. ability to form cells that directly kill virus-infected host cells
c. ability to undergo clonal selection
d. development from stem cells in the bone marrow
e. recognition of specific antigens

b. ability to form cells that directly kill virus-infected host cells

297

Which of the following statements is NOT true for T helper cells?
a. They lyse target cells.
b. They have CD4 molecules on the cell surface.
c. They activate macrophages.
d. They recognize antigen presented by class II MHC molecules.
e. They activate B cells.

a. They lyse target cells.

298

T cytotoxic cells __________.
a. respond to viruses free in circulation but not to those in host cells
b. recognize antigen presented by class II MHC molecules
c. are distinguished by the CD4 markers on their surface
d. produce perforin
e. engulf foreign cells

b. recognize antigen presented by class II MHC molecules

299

Which of these answers is a potential concern of using T-independent antigens as vaccines?
a. These antigens can lead to an aggressive cell-mediated immune response.
b. These antigens can induce autoimmune reactions.
c. These antigens will be ineffective in producing an immune response in infants.
d. Many individuals have impaired responses to T-independent antigens because of an inherited T-cell disorder.
e. The lack of macrophage participation will lead to a weak response.

c. These antigens will be ineffective in producing an immune response in infants.

300

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity __________.
a. damages, but rarely lyses, a microbe
b. involves NK cells binding directly to a microbe
c. involves eosinophils binding directly to a microbe
d. is particularly important for killing microbes that are too large be destroyed by phagocytosis
e. involves antibodies binding to a microbe in the same orientation that IgE antibodies bind to basophils

d. is particularly important for killing microbes that are too large be destroyed by phagocytosis

301

Which answer is true of the anamnestic response?
a. IgM predominates.
b. IgG and IgM are present in equal proportions.
c. IgG predominates.
d. IgM is not produced.
e. IgG is not produced.

c. IgG predominates.

302

Chapter 19

Chapter 19

303

Which of the following statements is NOT true for type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions?
a. The reactions may be localized or systemic.
b. The reactions occur when IgE antibodies bind to antigen.
c. Mediators of the reactions include histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.
d. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.
e. Examples include hay fever, asthma, and bee-sting allergies.

d. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.

304

What type of immunoglobulin binds to mast cells during an allergic reaction?
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgD
d. IgE
e. IgG

d. IgE

305

Which of the following is NOT a case of localized anaphylaxis?
a. poison ivy rash
b. hay fever
c. hives
d. allergy to dust mites
e. asthma

a. poison ivy rash

306

Blood transfusion hypersensitivity reactions are examples of __________.
a. type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity
b. type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
c. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity
d. type IV (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity
e. delayed hypersensitivity

b. type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

307

Although maternal–fetal incompatibilities are possible in the ABO blood group, the incidence of adverse reactions in the fetus or newborn is far less common than in the case of Rh incompatibilities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
a. Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta.
b. The A and B antigens are not expressed on fetal red blood cells.
c. Maternal antibodies are destroyed when they enter fetal circulation.
d. Antibody production is greatly reduced during pregnancy.
e. Blocking antibodies exist in the fetal circulation.

a. Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta.

308

Which of the following diseases is a type III autoimmune disease?
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. myasthenia gravis
c. poison ivy
d. hemolytic disease of the newborn
e. Graves’ disease

a. rheumatoid arthritis

309

A patient with severe burns on her hands and arms has a skin graft with skin taken from her upper thigh. This type of tissue transplant is a/an __________.
a. autograft
b. stem cell graft
c. xenograft
d. isograft
e. allograft

a. autograft

310

Following an organ transplant, therapeutic immunosuppression to prevent organ rejection may be accomplished by any of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. cyclosporine
b. chimeric monoclonal antibodies
c. RhoGAM
d. suppression of cell-mediated immunity
e. blocking IL-2

a. cyclosporine

311

9. Which of the following is NOT an example of immunotherapy for cancer treatment or prevention?
a. HAART for HIV infection
b. stimulation of dendritic cells with tumor antigens
c. injections of immunotoxins that target tumor cells
d. the Gardasil vaccine
e. vaccination against hepatitis B

a. HAART for HIV infection

312

10. Which type of graft will most likely cause hyperacute rejection?
a. mesograft
b. isograft
c. autograft
d. xenotransplant
e. allograft

d. xenotransplant

313

11. Which of the following is/are NOT a component of the HIV virion?
a. gp120
b. RNA strands
c. lipoprotein envelope
d. reverse transcriptase
e. DNA strands

e. DNA strands

314

12. HIV can remain latent in the host cell by integrating its reverse-transcriptase-produced DNA into the host chromosome, becoming a/an __________.
a. provirus
b. prophage
c. virion
d. prion
e. antivirus

a. provirus

315

13. All of the following concerning the clinical phases of HIV infection are correct EXCEPT__________.
a. phase 2: persistent oral Candida infection
b. phase 3: Pneumocystis pneumonia or toxoplasmosis of the brain
c. phase 1: Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. phase 1: persistent lymphadenopathy
e. phase 3: CD4 T cell count less than 200 cells per cubic millimeter

c. phase 1: Kaposi’s sarcoma

316

14. Which of the following could be predicted for an individual with a mutation in the gene encoding CCR5?
a. resistance to HIV infection
b. inability to be stimulated by interleukin-1
c. inability to produce antibodies
d. inability to produce cytokines
e. inability to interact with macrophages and dendritic cells during antigen presentation

a. resistance to HIV infection

317

15. Which of the following predictions can be made regarding the immune responses of individuals with AIDS?
a. They cannot make any antibody.
b. They produce good immune responses against fungal pathogens.
c. They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens.
d. They can only make antibody in response to T-dependent antigens.
e. They produce good immune responses against protozoan pathogens.

c. They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens.

318

16. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be similar to AIDS in terms of the specific immunodeficiency?
a. severe combined immunodeficiency
b. DiGeorge syndrome
c. selective IgA deficiency
d. X-linked infantile agammaglobulinemia
e. common variable hypogammaglobulinemia

b. DiGeorge syndrome

319

Which is NOT a mechanism used in anti-HIV drugs?
a. blocking viral fusion
b. blocking reverse transcriptase
c. inhibition of HIV integrase
d. inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
e. protease inhibition

d. inhibition of cell-wall synthesis

320

Which of the following is NOT a common disease associated with AIDS?
a. cytomegalovirus eye infections
b. Pneumocystis pneumonia
c. influenza
d. toxoplasmosis of the brain
e. Candida albicans infection

c. influenza

321

19. The desensitization injections for allergy treatments are aimed at producing __________.
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgD
d. IgG
e. IgM

d. IgG

322

20. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, fetal red blood cells are targeted for destruction by __________.
a. maternal IgG antibodies
b. fetal IgG antibodies
c. maternal IgM antibodies
d. maternal IgE antibodies
e. fetal IgE antibodies

a. maternal IgG antibodies

323

21. When will someone infected with HIV have the most viral particles in his or her blood?
a. 1 to 2 months after the initial infection
b. when the patient dies
c. 1 year after the initial infection
d. 3 to 4 years after the initial infection

a. 1 to 2 months after the initial infection

324

22. What causes the rapid decline in the HIV population in the blood 3 to 6 months after the initial infection?
a. New viruses are not being released from the T cells.
b. The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV.
c. Both of the listed choices are correct.
d. Neither of the listed choices is correct.

b. The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV.

325

23. Which of the following statements is NOT true for type I hypersensitivity reactions?
a. The reactions may be localized or systemic.
b. Mediators of the reaction include histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.
c. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.
d. Examples include hay fever, asthma, and bee-sting allergies.
e. The reactions often occur within minutes of exposure to the allergen.

c. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.

326

24. Immune complexes cause tissue damage by __________.
a. releasing cyclosporine
b. causing T cells to destroy self
c. fixing complement
d. releasing histamine

b. causing T cells to destroy self

327

25. Which of the following promotes the development of self-tolerance and prevents the eventual development of autoimmune diseases?
a. loss of T memory cells
b. inhibition of B cell development
c. clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells
d. development of self-reactive B cell clones

c. clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells

328

26.All of the following are causes of immune deficiencies. Which one is NOT a natural cause?
a. inheritance
b. infection
c. transplant drugs
d. None of the listed choices is a natural cause of immune deficiencies.

c. transplant drugs

329

27. Incidence of which of the following cancers is now reduced by a vaccine?
a. leukemia
b. cervical cancer
c. bone cancer
d. breast cancer

b. cervical cancer

330

The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due
to tuberculosis infection.
True OR False

False

331

Chapter 20

Chapter 20

332

1. You have a 200 mg/ml antibiotic solution. You prepare serial dilutions (1:2, 1:4, etc.) of the antibiotic; the first tube contains 100 mg/ml. You then inoculate each tube with Salmonella. Bacteria grow in tubes 4, 5, and 6. You subculture bacteria from tubes 1 through 3 to nutrient broth. Growth occurs in the tube 3 subculture. You can conclude that the MIC is __________.
a. 12.5 mg/ml
b. 25 mg/ml
c. 50 mg/ml
d. 200 mg/ml
e. none of the listed choices

e. none of the listed choices

333

An antimicrobial drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is most likely to be effective against __________.
a. Gram-negative bacteria
b. viruses
c. protozoan parasites
d. gram-positive bacteria
e. fungi

d. gram-positive bacteria

334

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis?
a. isoniazid
b. rifampin
c. cephalosporin
d. streptomycin
e. vancomycin

d. streptomycin

335

You are reviewing the following results of a disk- diffusion antibiotic susceptibility test on an isolate of Staphylococcus aureus:
Antibiotic A: ZI (zone of inhibition) = 0 millimeters
Antibiotic B: ZI = 23 millimeters
Antibiotic C: ZI = 16 millimeters
Antibiotic D: ZI = 19 millimeters
Which antibiotic is bactericidal?
a. Antibiotic A
b. Antibiotic B
c. Antibiotic C
d. Antibiotic D
e. The correct answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

e. The correct answer cannot be determined from the information provided

336

Which antimicrobial works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acid?
a. methicillin
b. penicillin
c. isoniazid
d. chloramphenicol
e. vancomycin

c. isoniazid

337

Which of the following antibiotics is a common choice to treat streptococcal infections in children?
a. erythromycin
b. tetracycline
c. trimethoprim
d. rifampin
e. neomycin

a. erythromycin

338

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits folic acid synthesis?
a. ampicillin
b. chloramphenicol
c. tetracycline
d. sulfanilamide
e. neomycin

d. sulfanilamide

339

Which of the following drugs inhibits the synthesis of mRNA in bacteria?
a. ampicillin
b. rifampin
c. trimethoprim
d. polymyxin B
e. ethambutol

b. rifampin

340

Which of the following antibiotics is frequently used as an alternative for those who are allergic to penicillin?
a. amoxicillin
b. erythromycin
c. ethambutol
d. streptomycin
e. vancomycin

b. erythromycin

341

Which of the following types of antibiotics is most likely to be associated with the development of a superinfection?
a. bactericidal antibiotics
b. broad-spectrum antibiotics
c. narrow-spectrum antibiotics
d. β-lactam antibiotics
e. bacteriostatic antibiotics

b. broad-spectrum antibiotics

342

Which drug would be used to treat athlete's foot?
a. neomycin
b. clotrimazole
c. chloroquine
d. amantadine
e. polymyxin B

b. clotrimazole

343

Which antifungal drug was recently introduced to treat systemic fungal infections?
a. clotrimazole
b. miconazole
c. posaconazole
d. amphotericin B
e. tolnaftate

c. posaconazole

344

Tetracyclines are effective against all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. intracellular chlamydias
b. Gram-positive bacteria
c. Gram-negative bacteria
d. intracellular rickettsias
e. fungi

e. fungi

345

A nucleoside analog used to treat HIV infection is __________.
a. zidovudine
b. ribavirin
c. amantadine
d. acyclovir
e. praziquantel

a. zidovudine

346

All of the following are antiprotozoan drugs EXCEPT __________.
a. quinacrine
b. metronidazole
c. chloroquine
d. mefloquine
e. mebendazole

e. mebendazole

347

Which drug is NOT a nucleoside analog?
a. nevirapine
b. lamivudine
c. ribavirin
d. acyclovir
e. zidovudine

a. nevirapine

348

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of malaria?
a. iodoquinol
b. chloroquine
c. nifurtimox
d. Flagyl
e. quinacrine

b. chloroquine

349

The drug Flagyl is commonly used to treat an STD caused by __________.
a. herpesvirus
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Trichomonas vaginalis
e. HIV

d. Trichomonas vaginalis

350

Which of the following mechanisms is antifungal?
a. cause muscle spasms
b. inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis
c. interfere with anaerobic metabolism
d. inhibit ergosterol synthesis
e. inhibit 70S ribosomes

d. inhibit ergosterol synthesis

351

Which of the following is used for treating influenza infections?
a. indinavir
b. oseltamivir
c. pentamidine isethionate
d. acyclovir
e. interferon

b. oseltamivi

352

Clindamycin binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit translocation. This antibiotic stops __________.
a. translation in eukaryotes
b. transcription in prokaryotes
c. transcription in eukaryotes
d. translation in prokaryotes

d. translation in prokaryotes

353

Which of the following statements about antibiotics is true?
a. The finding of antibiotic-producing microorganisms is a rare event.
b. Antibiotics are not typically produced by microorganisms growing in their natural environment.
c. Penicillin was first discovered by two researchers named Florey and Chain.
d. Most of our antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces, a genus of filamentous soil bacteria.

d. Most of our antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces, a genus of filamentous soil bacteria.

354

A drug that binds with sterols would injure __________.
a. bacterial cell walls
b. eukaryotic plasma membranes
c. fungal cell walls
d. DNA

b. eukaryotic plasma membranes

355

The method of action of nucleoside analogs is __________.
a. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
b. inhibition of protein synthesis
c. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d. disruption of plasma membrane

a. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

356

The mode of action for erythromycin is __________.
a. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
b. inhibition of protein synthesis
c. inhibition of essential metabolite synthesis
d. inhibition of cell wall synthesis

b. inhibition of protein synthesis

357

What is the mechanism of the resistance of MRSA to methicillin?
a. blocking the entry of the methicillin
b. enzymatic destruction of the methicillin
c. alteration of the target molecule
d. efflux of the methicillin

c. alteration of the target molecule

358

Chapter 21

Chapter 21

359

Which of the following is NOT normal skin microbiota?
a. Streptococcus
b. Propionibacterium
c. Staphylococcus
d. Corynebacterium
e. Micrococcus

a. Streptococcus

360

What do the following diseases have in common?
Scalded skin syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome
Staphylococcal food poisoning
a. They are all diseases seen in neonates.
b. They are all caused by endotoxins produced by Escherichia coli.
c. They are all caused by exotoxins produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus.
d. All of these diseases are caused by beta-hemolytic streptococci.
e. All of these diseases are readily treated with penicillin.

c. They are all caused by exotoxins produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus.

361

Which microorganism is responsible for otitis externa?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Micrococcus spp.
c. Propionibacterium spp.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

362

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Streptococcus?
a. cocci
b. coagulase-positive
c. gram-positive
d. beta-hemolytic
e. M proteins

b. coagulase-positive

363

Place the following infections in order of increasing tissue involvement and severity:
1-septicemia
2-folliculitis
3-cellulitis
4-furuncle
a. 2, 4, 3, 1
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 4, 2, 1, 3
d. 2, 3, 4, 1
e. 2, 4, 1, 3

a. 2, 4, 3, 1

364

Which of the following may produce infections of the skin with blue-green pus?
a. Candida albicans
b. varicella-zoster virus
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Streptococcus pyogenes

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

365

Warts are generally caused by __________.
a. varicella-zoster
b. rubella
c. papillomavirus
d. herpesvirus
e. variola virus

c. papillomavirus

366

All of the following are characteristics of the varicella-zoster virus EXCEPT __________.
a. benign skin growths
b. vesicular skin rash
c. latent infection in nerve cells
d. reactivation infections decades after initial infection
e. transmission via the respiratory route

a. benign skin growths

367

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1?
a. canker sores
b. encephalitis
c. cold sores
d. herpes whitlow
e. cystic acne

a. canker sores

368

Which of the following is NOT a possible result of rubeola?
a. macular rash
b. pneumonia
c. encephalitis
d. shingles
e. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

d. shingles

369

All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT __________.
a. Pseudomonas
b. Propionibacterium
c. Chlamydia
d. Haemophilus
e. Neisseria

b. Propionibacterium

370

Sporotrichosis is the most common type of __________.
a. dermatomycoses
b. scabies
c. candidiasis
d. subcutaneous mycoses
e. cutaneous mycoses

d. subcutaneous mycoses

371

Which of the following is NOT associated with Candida albicans?
a. susceptibility to nystatin
b. bright red skin with lesions on the borders
c. immunosuppressed individuals
d. susceptibility to penicillin
e. whitish overgrowth of the oral cavity

d. susceptibility to penicillin

372

Which of the following would be the most appropriate way of testing whether a skin lesion is caused by a dermatophyte?
a. culture scrapings of the lesion periphery on Sabouraud’s agar
b. performing a dermatophyte titer
c. swabbing the lesion center and culturing it on blood agar
d. doing a gram stain on a swab from the lesion
e. Any of these choices would be equally effective.

a. culture scrapings of the lesion periphery on Sabouraud’s agar

373

Ringworm is caused by a/an __________.
a. fungus
b. helminth
c. arthropod
d. nematode
e. protozoan

a. fungus

374

Which of the following statements is true regarding chickenpox and shingles?
a. An individual is likely to develop shingles after exposure to a person with shingles.
b. A child who is not immune to chickenpox may get it following exposure to a patient with shingles.
c. A nonimmune adult is likely to develop shingles after exposure to a person with chickenpox.
d. An individual who has never been infected with varicella can get shingles as an adult.
e. All of these statements are true

b. A child who is not immune to chickenpox may get it following exposure to a patient with shingles.

375

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for papillomas?
a. treatment with certain topical drugs
b. acyclovir treatment
c. cryotherapy
d. electro-desiccation
e. laser therapy

b. acyclovir treatment

376

Which enzyme is NOT produced by deep-tissue streptococcal infections?
a. streptokinase
b. coagulase
c. deoxyribonuclease
d. protease
e. hyaluronidase

b. coagulase

377

Measles can potentially be eradicated because __________.
a. the virus has mutated to the point that it is no longer infectious
b. it is not highly contagious
c. most people have developed resistance to it
d. humans are the only reservoir, and vaccination is effective
e. it is easily controlled by antibiotics

d. humans are the only reservoir, and vaccination is effective

378

Which of the following is a eukaryotic pathogen that infects the eye?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. human herpesvirus I
c. Acanthamoeba
d. Sarcoptes scabiei
e. Chlamydia trachomatis

c. Acanthamoeba

379

Chapter 22

Chapter 22

380

Consider the following three common agents of bacterial meningitis: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae type B. Which of the following would be most helpful in differentiating these three agents?
a. Gram-stain morphology
b. CSF white blood cell count
c. duration of symptoms
d. presence or absence of a capsule
e. patient symptoms

a. Gram-stain morphology

381

The current first choice of antibiotic for bacterial meningitis is __________.
a. ampicillin
b. cephalosporin
c. erythromycin
d. vancomycin
e. penicillin

b. cephalosporin

382

Vaccination is recommended to prevent epidemic meningitis among college students and military recruits resulting from infection with __________.
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Listeria monocytogenes

c. Neisseria meningitidis

383

The most important element in the pathogenicity of S. pneumoniae is __________.
a. exotoxins
b. endotoxins
c. the capsule
d. the cell wall
e. rapid growth rate

c. the capsule

384

The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis requires a sample of __________.
a. blood
b. sputum
c. urine
d. lymphatic tissue
e. cerebrospinal fluid

e. cerebrospinal fluid

385

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a prion?
a. African sleeping sickness
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c. scrapie
d. kuru
e. bovine spongiform encephalopathy

a. African sleeping sickness

386

Treatment for rabies exposure requires __________.
a. injections of antirabies vaccine and immune globulin
b. injections of antirabies vaccine and antibiotics
c. oral antibiotics and immune globulin
d. IV antibiotics and immune globulin
e. injections of rabies antitoxin and chemotherapy

a. injections of antirabies vaccine and immune globulin

387

Which disease may be transmitted by contaminated dairy products?
a. tetanus
b. poliomyelitis
c. encephalitis
d. listeriosis
e. botulism

d. listeriosis

388

Which of the following statements is NOT true about botulism?
a. Antibiotics are the first choice of treatment.
b. Nitrites are added to foods to inhibit bacterial growth.
c. The bacterium forms endospores.
d. The bacterium is anaerobic.
e. The toxin is heat labile.

a. Antibiotics are the first choice of treatment.

389

Which of the following is used to diagnose West Nile encephalitis?
a. ELISA test for IgM antibodies
b. acid-fast stain
c. ELISA test for viral proteins
d. agglutination test for viruses
e. constant level of IgG antibodies for 1 week

a. ELISA test for IgM antibodies

390

Reservoirs for rabies include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. skunks
b. bats
c. mosquitoes
d. raccoons
e. foxes

c. mosquitoes

391

Which of these vaccines has actually been implicated in causing the disease it is designed to prevent?
a. tetanus vaccine
b. pneumococcus vaccine
c. Salk polio vaccine
d. Sabin oral polio vaccine
e. Hib vaccine

d. Sabin oral polio vaccine

392

A migrant farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus. He indicates that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week before the onset of symptoms. When asked about vaccination or booster, he did not know whether he had ever been vaccinated. Which of the following should be administered to the patient as soon as possible?
a. tetanus immune globulin
b. hyperbaric therapy
c. tetanus toxoid
d. antibiotics
e. a tetanus titer

a. tetanus immune globulin

393

A 10-month-old infant has become constipated and demonstrates muscular weakness by her inability to sit up or crawl. Her muscle tone is continuing to deteriorate, and she is beginning to have difficulty holding her head up. While questioning her mother to get more information, the doctor noted that the infant's cereal had been sweetened with honey for the last 10 days. What is a likely diagnosis?
a. infant botulism
b. viral encephalitis
c. bacterial meningitis
d. tetanus

a. infant botulism

394

What is the best way to control West Nile encephalitis?
a. Get vaccinated.
b. Eliminate the vector.
c. Take prophylactic antibiotics.
d. Avoid endemic areas.
e. Treat the patient

b. Eliminate the vector.

395

Which method is best for controlling African trypanosomiasis?
a. Control the vector.
b. Take prophylactic antibiotics.
c. Avoid reservoirs.
d. Avoid swimming in contaminated water.
e. Get a vaccination

a. Control the vector.

396

An otherwise healthy 19-year-old college student was admitted to the emergency room with a fever, bad headache, and a stiff neck, symptoms suggestive of meningitis. A spinal tap was done. The CSF was cloudy, and the cell count on the fluid was 500 WBC/ml. The differential WBC count of the CSF showed predominantly neutrophils. The CSF glucose was decreased, and the CSF protein was elevated. The Gram stain showed gram-negative diplococci. The most likely etiologic agent is __________.
a. Neisseria meningitidis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Haemophilus influenza B
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. beta-hemolytic group B streptococcus

a. Neisseria meningitidis

397

Naegleria encephalitis is commonly acquired by __________.
a. children swimming in ponds and streams
b. mosquitoes
c. bats
d. inhalation of bird droppings
e. eating contaminated beets

a. children swimming in ponds and streams

398

Which of these statements is true concerning foodborne botulism in older children and adults?
a. Disease results from consuming botulism toxin in improperly preserved foods.
b. Disease results from consuming vegetative C. botulinum organisms that invade peripheral neurons.
c. Disease results when ingested C. botulinum spores germinate in the intestine and invade the bloodstream, causing septicemia.
d. Disease usually results from consuming C. botulinum spores in improperly canned foods. These spores germinate and produce toxin within the intestine.
e. Disease results from toxin produced by vegetative C. botulinum organisms when contaminated foods sit at room temperature between preparation and consumption.

a. Disease results from consuming botulism toxin in improperly preserved foods.

399

Which of the following begins as a lung infection but may cause meningitis in immunosuppressed individuals?
a. cryptococcosis
b. listeriosis
c. polio
d. amebic encephalitis
e. scrapie

a. cryptococcosis

400

Drugs used to treat encephalitis must __________.
a. inhibit acetylcholine
b. enter the lymphatic system
c. be lipid soluble
d. be broad spectrum

c. be lipid soluble

401

Which of the following microorganisms is NOT a bacterial cause of meningitis?
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Neisseria meningitidis

a. Cryptococcus neoformans

402

Which if the following diseases is caused by the toxin released by a bacterium?
a. rabies
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c. botulism
d. polio

c. botulism

403

Which one of the following diseases is transmitted by a vector?
a. African trypanosomiasis
b. poliomyelitis
c. Naegleria meningoencephalitis
d. leprosy

a. African trypanosomiasis

404

A postmortem examination of a brain shows spongelike degeneration. This is most likely a case of __________.
a. rabies
b. poliomyelitis
c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
d. arboviral encephalitis

c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

405

Chapter 23

Chapter 23

406

Which disease is NOT caused by an obligatory intracellular bacterium?
a. Lyme disease
b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
c. epidemic typhus
d. endemic murine typhus
e. ehrlichiosis

a. Lyme disease

407

A hyperbaric chamber is sometimes used to treat wounds infected with __________.
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Enterococcus faecium
e. Clostridium perfringens

e. Clostridium perfringens

408

The CDC recommends that pregnant women be tested and offered antibiotic therapy before delivery if they are vaginal carriers of __________.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Toxoplasma gondii
e. Escherichia coli

b. Streptococcus agalactiae

409

Why do antibiotics sometimes aggravate septic shock?
a. The bacteria are resistant to the antibiotics.
b. Antibiotics cannot reach the site of infection.
c. The bacteria chemically modify the antibiotics into toxins.
d. Antibiotics may cause the lysis of more bacteria and the release of more endotoxin.
e. Septic shock is caused by viruses that are not affected by antibiotics.

d. Antibiotics may cause the lysis of more bacteria and the release of more endotoxin.

410

A 24-year-old woman in Minnesota complained of a flu like illness accompanied by a high fever and headache a week after being bitten by a tick. During examination of a blood smear, it was noted that some of her monocytes contained clumps of tiny bacteria (morulae). What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. tularemia
b. human granulocytic anaplasmosis
c. Lyme disease
d. babesiosis
e. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

b. human granulocytic anaplasmosis

411

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched to its vector?
a. Trypanosoma cruzi; reduviid bug
b. Leishmania tropica; sandfly
c. yellow fever; mosquito
d. Babesia microti; flea
e. Plasmodium vivax; mosquito

d. Babesia microti; flea

412

Tularemia can be contracted by humans by all of the following methods EXCEPT __________.
a. infection with Epstein-Barr virus
b. eating undercooked meat from diseased animals
c. being bitten by deerflies
d. handling diseased carcasses
e. coming into contact with infected rabbits

a. infection with Epstein-Barr virus

413

Which of the following statements is NOT true of brucellosis?
a. Treatment requires prolonged antibiotic therapy.
b. Transmission occurs via mosquitoes.
c. Wild elk and bison are reservoirs.
d. The causative agent grows intracellularly.
e. Infected cows excrete bacteria in their milk

b. Transmission occurs via mosquitoes.

414

Most cases of Burkitt’s lymphoma occur in individuals who are infected with EB virus and __________.
a. schistosomes
b. Plasmodium species
c. Trypanosoma species
d. HIV
e. herpesviru

b. Plasmodium species

415

Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match?
a. Yersinia pestis; rodents
b. Rickettsia typhi; rodents
c. Clostridium perfringens; soil
d. Francisella tularensis; rabbits
e. Leishmania spp.; water

e. Leishmania spp.; water

416

Which of the following is frequently the cause of infection following animal bites?
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Rickettsia rickettsia
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Pasteurella multocida

e. Pasteurella multocida

417

Most naturally occurring anthrax infections are __________.
a. pulmonary anthrax from inhaling endospores
b. cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a skin lesion
c. sepsis due to transfusion with contaminated blood
d. gastrointestinal infections from eating undercooked food containing anthrax spores
e. pneumonic anthrax contracted by contact with human carriers

b. cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a skin lesion

418

A man found living in a rat-infested building develops a high fever and swollen lymph nodes, called buboes, in the armpit and groin. A gram-negative bacillus is isolated from the patient, and the rats are found to be infested with Xenopsylla cheopis. What is the disease?
a. bubonic plague
b. relapsing fever
c. Lyme disease
d. cat-scratch disease
e. rat-scratch disease

a. bubonic plague

419

A patient has flulike symptoms and a bull's-eye rash on his leg. Investigation reveals that he had been hiking in Connecticut and was bitten by two ticks. What is the diagnosis?
a. cat-scratch disease
b. relapsing fever
c. deer-lick fever
d. bubonic plague
e. Lyme disease

e. Lyme disease

420

Which of the following statements is NOT true of yellow fever?
a. Liver damage may result from infection.
b. Burkitt's lymphoma may develop.
c. Fever, chills, and jaundice are frequent symptoms.
d. Control of mosquito populations can reduce the disease incidence.
e. Aedes aegypti is the vecto

b. Burkitt's lymphoma may develop.

421

A Nigerian tourist is hospitalized with a fever and chills that occur in 48-hour cycles. A blood smear reveals circular rings within the erythrocytes. What is the treatment of choice for this patient?
a. gin
b. penicillin
c. acyclovir
d. chloroquine
e. tetracycline

d. chloroquine

422

Swimmer's itch is caused by __________.
a. filovirus
b. Plasmodium merozoites
c. larvae of schistosomes
d. Babesia
e. arbovirus

c. larvae of schistosomes

423

The symptoms of schistosomiasis are due primarily to __________.
a. reactions to drugs used for treatment
b. larval cercaria entering the skin
c. eggs deposited by adult worms in host tissue
d. adult worms living in host blood vessels
e. an immune reaction to developing worms

c. eggs deposited by adult worms in host tissue

424

A 34-year-old Caucasian male is being examined in the emergency room of a Boston hospital, complaining of a high fever and severe muscle pain and joint pain. He returned to Boston two days ago, after spending 10 days traveling throughout Brazil on business. He indicated that he was bitten by mosquitoes several times while on the trip. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Lassa fever
b. Marburg virus
c. influenza
d. yellow fever
e. dengue fever

e. dengue fever

425

Toxoplasmosis is most commonly contracted by __________.
a. dog bites
b. cat scratches
c. flea bites
d. contact with cat feces
e. African green monkeys

d. contact with cat feces

426

All of the following are defensive cells associated with the lymph nodes
a. fixed macrophages
b. B lymphocytes
c. T lymphocytes
d. eosinophils

c. T lymphocytes

427

A slaughterhouse worker develops fever and chills, with the fever reaching a high of 40°C each evening. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccobacilli are isolated from a lesion on his arm. What is your diagnosis?
a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
b. malaria
c. relapsing fever
d. brucellosis

d. brucellosis

428

A patient is hospitalized with fever, headache, jaundice, and rash. Spirochetes are observed in her blood. What is your diagnosis?
a. relapsing fever
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. yellow fever

a. relapsing fever

429

Which one of these diseases has the highest incidence in the United States?
a. CMV (cytomegalovirus) infection
b. plague
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. malaria

a. CMV (cytomegalovirus) infection

430

A microorganism has just been introduced to a point below the dermis of the foot via the parenteral route. It is in the interstitial fluid and will eventually become engulfed by a fixed macrophage in an inguinal lymph node. What is the next location it will travel to after leaving the interstitial fluid?
a. lymphatics
b. blood
c. lymph node
d. lymph capillary

d. lymph capillary

431

Chapter 24

Chapter 24

432

One of the most serious infections of the upper respiratory system is __________.
a. sinusitis
b. tonsillitis
c. pharyngitis
d. epiglottitis
e. laryngitis

d. epiglottitis

433

One of the most important reasons to diagnose and treat strep throat is that __________.
a. untreated strep throat is associated with the development of otitis media and conjunctivitis
b. untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of diphtheria
c. untreated strep throat may progress to necrotizing fasciitis
d. untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of rheumatic fever
e. untreated strep throat may progress to drug-resistant influenza

d. untreated strep throat may contribute to the development of rheumatic fever

434

Which of the following statements is NOT true of diphtheria?
a. It is prevented by immunization with diphtheria toxoid.
b. Complications may include damage to heart or kidneys.
c. Symptoms include the formation of a tough grayish membrane in the throat.
d. It is readily treated with antibiotics.
e. It is caused by a gram-positive, non–endospore-forming rod.

d. It is readily treated with antibiotics.

435

Haemophilus influenzae can cause all of the following respiratory infections EXCEPT __________.
a. sinusitis
b. laryngitis
c. influenza
d. epiglottitis
e. otitis media

c. influenza

436

All of the following cause lower respiratory tract infections EXCEPT __________.
a. rhinovirus
b. Legionella
c. Mycoplasma
d. Chlamydia
e. Blastomyces

a. rhinovirus

437

Pertussis is characterized by __________.
a. a tough, grayish membrane formed in the throat
b. thick fluid build-up in the inner ear canal
c. calcification of lung tissue and acid-fast bacteria
d. a whooping type cough
e. fluid accumulation in alveoli

d. a whooping type cough

438

An effective vaccine does NOT exist for the common cold, because __________.
a. the toxin producing the symptoms cannot be inactivated
b. the disease is not serious enough to warrant immunization
c. the common cold can be caused by a virus, bacterium, or parasite
d. there are likely over 200 agents that cause the common cold
e. it is not possible to culture the causative agent

d. there are likely over 200 agents that cause the common cold

439

Which of the following best describes why antibiotic administration is inappropriate for most of the common upper respiratory tract infections?
a. The diseases produced are not serious enough to treat.
b. The infectious agents produce enzymes that destroy penicillin.
c. The antibiotics do not reach the infected sites.
d. Antibiotics can exacerbate symptoms.
e. Most are caused by viruses

e. Most are caused by viruses

440

A physician receives a lab report indicating that acid-fast bacilli were found in sputum from a patient with a lower respiratory tract infection. The physician suspects __________.
a. mycoplasma pneumonia
b. histoplasmosis
c. Legionnaire's disease
d. pneumococcal pneumonia
e. tuberculosis

e. tuberculosis

441

An 8-week-old infant has been brought to the ER because of difficulty breathing. Chest sounds and a chest X-ray indicate an acute bronchiolitis. Oxygen saturation is poor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. influenza
b. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
c. pertussis
d. Pneumocystis pneumonia
e. Haemophilus influenzae pneumonia

b. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

442

Which of the following statements is NOT true of tuberculosis?
a. TB bacteria can survive for months on sputum-contaminated materials.
b. Infection has been greatly reduced because of mass immunization.
c. It is transmitted by contact with infected humans.
d. Extremely dangerous multiple drug-resistant strains have emerged.
e. Once phagocytized, the bacteria can survive inside the phagocytic cells.

b. Infection has been greatly reduced because of mass immunization.

443

If a patient has a positive tuberculin skin test, it means that __________.
a. the patient has a latent case of tuberculosis
b. the patient was vaccinated with the BCG vaccine
c. the patient has an active case of tuberculosis
d. the patient has recovered from tuberculosis
e. All of the listed choices are possible regarding a patient with a positive tuberculin skin test.

e. All of the listed choices are possible regarding a patient with a positive tuberculin skin test.

444

An outbreak of pneumonia occurs in a wing of a hospital housing kidney-transplant patients. The source of infection is traced to the water supply of the air conditioner. This case describes transmission of which of the following?
a. Haemophilus influenza
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Legionella pneumophila
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae

c. Legionella pneumophila

445

The frequency of influenza epidemics is associated with the __________.
a. wide variety of virus families that can cause influenza
b. many animal and human carriers
c. frequency of mutations in viral genes for envelope spikes
d. lack of available immunization
e. ability of influenza viruses to be transmitted via contaminated public water supplies

c. frequency of mutations in viral genes for envelope spikes

446

A 90-year-old patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. Microscopic examination shows a bacterial agent that lacks cell walls. What is the etiological cause of the patient’s pneumonia?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
d. Haemophilus influenza
e. Staphylococcus pneumoniae

b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

447

The DTaP immunization is for __________.
a. dermatomycoses, tetanus, and Pontiac fever
b. diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
c. dermatomycoses, TB, and pertussis
d. diphtheria, tetanus, and parainfluenza
e. diphtheria, TB, and pneumococcal pneumonia

b. diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis

448

Which of the following descriptions does NOT pertain to mycoplasmal pneumonia?
a. alveoli do not fill up with fluid
b. cannot be treated with penicillin
c. usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence
d. also called walking pneumonia
e. gradual onset of fever and cough

c. usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence

449

An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and a dry cough for several months; recently, he has begun coughing up sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing some white spots on his lungs, an AFB stain and culture were ordered, and both were positive for the presence of AFB. He has been PPD positive since his twenties. Which of the following most accurately describes his current situation?
a. reactivation tuberculosis
b. primary tubercular infection
c. latent tubercular infection
d. primary tubercular disease
e. histoplasmosis

a. reactivation tuberculosis

450

A patient has a rapid onset of fever, chills, labored breathing, and sore throat. He recently returned from Mexico, where he drank local water and stayed in an air-conditioned room. Several weeks ago, he purchased a parrot. After a physical exam, his physician prescribes tetracycline. What is the cause of the patient's illness?
a. Chlamydia psittaci
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Coccidioides immitis
d. Legionella pneumophila
e. Haemophilus influenzae

a. Chlamydia psittaci

451

Some respiratory diseases are best diagnosed by a gram-stained smear and/or culture, while others are best diagnosed by specific antigen testing or by detecting IgM antibodies. Which of the following respiratory diseases is best diagnosed by doing a specific IgM titer?
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. legionellosis
c. diphtheria
d. tuberculosis
e. influenza

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

452

All of these statements are true of tuberculosis EXCEPT:
a. infection has been greatly reduced due to mass immunization.
b. once phagocytized, the bacteria can survive inside the phagocytic cells.
c. it is transmitted by contact with infected humans.
d. TB bacteria can survive for months on sputum-contaminated materials.
e. extremely dangerous multiple drug-resistant strains have emerged

a. infection has been greatly reduced due to mass immunization.

453

All of these descriptions pertain to Mycoplasmal pneumonia EXCEPT that __________.
a. it is usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence
b. the etiologic agent has a “fried-egg” appearance on agar plates
c. it also called walking pneumonia
d. it cannot be treated with penicillin
e. symptoms include a low-grade fever and cough

a. it is usually a life-threatening illness in adolescence

454

All of these statements are true of diphtheria EXCEPT:
a. patients can be cured using only antibiotics.
b. it is prevented by immunization with diphtheria toxoid.
c. symptoms include a tough grayish membrane in the throat.
d. it is caused by a gram-positive, non-endospore-forming rod.

b. it is prevented by immunization with diphtheria toxoid.

455

An 81-year-old female has a mass in her lower-left lung. Her tuberculin skin test is negative. Microscopic examination of her lung biopsy reveals large, ovoid cells. The patient has __________.
a. histoplasmosis
b. tuberculosis
c. streptococcal pneumonia
d. psittacosis

a. histoplasmosis

456

Which of these answers describes normal microbiota of the respiratory system?
a. The normal microbiota does not include potentially pathogenic microorganisms.
b. Most of the normal microbiota are found in the lower respiratory tract.
c. The respiratory normal microbiota include multiple types of protozoa.
d. Microbial antagonism maintains a balance among the normal microbiota.

a. The normal microbiota does not include potentially pathogenic microorganisms.

457

A 35-year-old male is hospitalized for cough, fever, and shortness of breath. He is HIV-positive. Bronchial washings reveal cysts. What is the etiology?
a. Pneumocystis
b. Streptococcus
c. Mycobacterium
d. Mycoplasma

a. Pneumocystis

458

The following sequence occurs during the initiation of tuberculosis. What is the first step?
a. The tubercle liquefies.
b. The tubercle ruptures.
c. Additional macrophages migrate to the lungs in response to chemotactic factors.
d. Mycobacteria reproduce in macrophages.

d. Mycobacteria reproduce in macrophages.

459

Chapter 25

Chapter 25

460

Which of the following does NOT pertain to dental caries?
a. Plaque contributes to dental caries.
b. Acidic microbial products cause erosion of tooth enamel.
c. It is a bacterial disease of the mouth.
d. Normal mouth microbiota act as first-line nonspecific defenses.
e. Increase in dietary sugar causes increased risk for tooth decay.

d. Normal mouth microbiota act as first-line nonspecific defenses.

461

Which of the following does NOT pertain to Streptococcus mutans?
a. It is a Gram-positive coccus.
b. It is the major causative agent of dental caries.
c. Cells lyse on contact with fluoride.
d. It is capable of fermenting sugars.
e. It produces acidic metabolic byproducts

c. Cells lyse on contact with fluoride.

462

You see flagellated cells in a microscopic examination of feces from a patient with diarrhea. You conclude that the etiology is__________.
a. Cyclospora
b. Giardia
c. Cryptosporidium
d. Entamoeba
e. Taenia

b. Giardia

463

Which of the following does NOT pertain to Staphylococcus aureus, which causes food poisoning?
a. It is resistant to high osmotic pressure.
b. Its growth can be prevented by refrigeration of foods.
c. It is resistant to drying and radiation.
d. It is transmitted by contaminated drinking water.
e. It produces enterotoxins.

d. It is transmitted by contaminated drinking water.

464

Bacillary dysentery __________.
a. causes “rice water stools”
b. occurs after ingestion of bacterial toxins present in contaminated foods
c. does not respond to antibiotic therapy
d. is caused by bacteria that are part of the normal enteric microbiota
e. is caused by members of the Shigella genus

e. is caused by members of the Shigella genus

465

Beef is checked for cysticerci to prevent transmission of __________.
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Taenia saginata
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Salmonella enterica
e. Cryptosporidium parvum

b. Taenia saginata

466

Staphylococcal food poisoning is most likely to result from __________.
a. consumption of staphylococcal enterotoxin in potato salad that has been left at room temperature
b. consumption of staphylococcal enterotoxin in improperly canned vegetables
c. consumption of Staphylococcus aureus spores in a Caesar salad
d. consumption of Staphylococcus aureus cells in contaminated deli meats
e. consumption of fresh vegetables that were contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus cells

a. consumption of staphylococcal enterotoxin in potato salad that has been

467

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of mumps?
a. It commonly infects salivary glands.
b. Though rare, it may cause sterility in males.
c. An effective attenuated vaccine (MMR) is available.
d. It is spread via the fecal-oral route.
e. Complications include meningitis, inflammation of the ovaries, and pancreatitis

d. It is spread via the fecal-oral route.

468

Which of the following is NOT true of salmonellosis?
a. It is transmitted via contaminated poultry, eggs, and other foods.
b. An estimated 2 to 4 million cases occur in the United States per year.
c. Antibiotic therapy is required for all patients.
d. The bacteria invade intestinal mucosa and can readily multiply in macrophages.
e. Pet reptiles, including turtles and iguanas, are frequently carriers.

c. Antibiotic therapy is required for all patients.

469

All of the following cause diarrhea EXCEPT __________.
a. Shigella spp.
b. Salmonella enterica
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Yersinia enterocolitica
e. Enterobius vermicularis

e. Enterobius vermicularis

470

Which of the following can be prevented by cooking food?
a. tapeworms
b. E. coli hemorrhagic colitis
c. salmonellosis
d. trichinosis
e. All of the listed choices can be prevented by cooking food.

e. All of the listed choices can be prevented by cooking food.

471

Which of the following is NOT true of typhoid fever?
a. It is caused by Salmonella typhi.
b. Most cases reported in the United States are acquired during foreign travel.
c. Fluid and electrolyte replacement are the primary treatments.
d. Recovered patients may become chronic carriers.
e. Humans are the only source of infection.

c. Fluid and electrolyte replacement are the primary treatments.

472

The majority of traveler's diarrhea cases are caused by __________.
a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. Escherichia coli
c. Campylobacter jejuni
d. Vibrio vulnificus
e. Bacillus cereus

b. Escherichia coli

473

Which of the following does NOT pertain to E. coli?
a. All pathogenic strains invade mucosal cells and cause lesions.
b. Some strains are normal microbiota of human intestines.
c. Certain strains have a plasmid for enterotoxin production.
d. Presence in a water supply indicates fecal contamination.
e. E. coli O157:H7 acquired a toxin gene from Shigella.

a. All pathogenic strains invade mucosal cells and cause lesions.

474

Which answer is true of hepatitis A but NOT hepatitis B?
a. causes liver inflammation
b. available vaccine
c. fecal-oral; spread via water and food
d. chronic carriers and blood transmission
e. leads to increased risk of liver cancer

c. fecal-oral; spread via water and food

475

Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match?
a. hepatitis A; chronic form of hepatitis
b. hepatitis B; chronic infections increase risk of liver cancer
c. hepatitis C; transmitted via blood transfusions
d. hepatitis D; can cause disease only as a co-infection with hepatitis B
e. hepatitis E; outbreaks in Asia and Africa associated with contaminated water

a. hepatitis A; chronic form of hepatitis

476

An epidemiologist is involved in a hepatitis outbreak in a community. She traces the source of all cases to food served in a local restaurant. What health recommendations should be made to customers who ate at the restaurant?
a. Customers should be offered passive immunization with immune globulin.
b. Customers should be offered the inactivated hepatitis A vaccine.
c. Customers should be treated with lamivudine.
d. Customers should be treated with a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
e. Customers should be treated with interferon

a. Customers should be offered passive immunization with immune globulin.

477

An open cut on a dental hygienist's hand is exposed to blood from a patient's mouth. All of the following are potentially bloodborne pathogens to which she may have been exposed EXCEPT __________.
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis D
e. HIV

a. hepatitis A

478

Some gastrointestinal diseases are diagnosed using a culture, others by direct antigen detection methods, and still others by measuring a specific IgM titer. Which of the following diseases is detected by doing an IgM titer?
a. hepatitis A
b. cryptosporidiosis
c. staphylococcal enterotoxicosis
d. Helicobacter peptic ulcer disease
e. enterohemorrhagic E. coli infection

a. hepatitis A

479

Diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile __________.
a. is transmitted by human carriers
b. is treated with oral rehydration therapy
c. is commonly known as traveler's diarrhea
d. can result in life-threatening inflammation of the colon
e. can cause stomach ulcers

d. can result in life-threatening inflammation of the colon

480

Chapter 26

Chapter 26

481

Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match?
a. dysuria; painful urination
b. cystitis; inflammation of urethra
c. glomerulonephritis; inflammation of kidney glomerular capillaries
d. pyelonephritis; inflammation of kidneys
e. prostatitis; inflammation of prostate

b. cystitis; inflammation of urethra

482

Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
a. Urethral infections easily spread to the bladder.
b. They typically begin in kidneys and descend to the bladder and urethra.
c. Incomplete or infrequent emptying of the bladder increases risk of infection.
d. An enlarged prostate gland increases the incidence of infection.
e. The shorter urethra in females increases the risk of cystitis.

b. They typically begin in kidneys and descend to the bladder and urethra.

483

Which microorganism is responsible for approximately 75% of all UTIs and half of the nosocomial infections of the urinary tract?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Candida albicans
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Streptococcus faecalis
e. Trichomonas vaginalis

a. Escherichia coli

484

A 22-year-old female college student visits the campus health center, complaining of low pelvic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. A clean-catch urine specimen is collected and upon culture, it grows more than 100,000 colony-forming units per millimeter of a catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram-positive cocci. What is the most likely identification of this etiologic agent?
a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus faecalis
d. Candida albicans
e. Staphylococcus aureus

a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

485

Non-gonococcal urethritis is commonly caused by __________.
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus faecalis
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
e. Trichomonas vaginalis

a. Chlamydia trachomatis

486

Which of the following does NOT pertain to leptospirosis?
a. It is caused by a spirochete.
b. It is a zoonotic disease.
c. Penicillin A is the preferred drug for treatment.
d. It has an incubation period of 1 to 2 weeks, with sudden onset of headaches, chills, and fever.
e. It is transmitted via contact with urine and urine-contaminated water or soil.

c. Penicillin A is the preferred drug for treatment.

487

Which of the following does NOT pertain to vaginitis?
a. increased frequency in menopause patients
b. increased frequency in pregnant patients
c. always sexually transmitted
d. diabetes mellitus and use of contraceptive pills increase risk
e. usually caused by opportunistic microbes

c. always sexually transmitted

488

All of the following are potentially predisposing conditions for vaginitis EXCEPT __________.
a. increased sugar concentration in the vagina
b. a vaginal pH of 4.5 or lower
c. treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics
d. estrogen imbalance
e. decrease in lactobacilli population

b. a vaginal pH of 4.5 or lower

489

A clinical microbiologist detects clue cells from a vaginal swab of a patient. These cells are diagnostic of infection associated with __________.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
e. Chlamydia trachomatis

c. Gardnerella vaginalis

490

A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency room complaining of low abdominal pain and a fever. As she walks into the examination room, she is slightly stooped over and says that even walking is painful. She indicates that intercourse has been painful for the past week and evidence of purulent vaginal discharge is noted during a pelvic exam. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. bacterial vaginosis
b. HPV infection
c. syphilis
d. pyelonephritis
e. pelvic inflammatory disease

e. pelvic inflammatory disease

491

Which of the following does NOT correctly represent a stage of syphilis?
a. latent stage: no symptoms but can persist for life
b. incubation: 3- to 5-day incubation period
c. primary stage: chancre at initial site
d. secondary stage: skin lesions on palm and any surface area of the body
e. tertiary stage: cardiovascular and neurological damage

b. incubation: 3- to 5-day incubation period

492

Which of these statements about gonorrhea is true?
a. Most isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are susceptible to penicillin.
b. Infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae give rise to long-lasting immunity.
c. Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae is associated with the development of cervical cancer.
d. Most women infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae experience headaches and nausea.
e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae can disseminate from the genital area to the joints, causing arthritis.

e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae can disseminate from the genital area to the joints, causing arthritis.

493

A patient has an STI characterized by sporadically recurring, painful, fluid-filled blisters in the genital area. A Gram stain and bacterial culture indicate the presence of normal bacterial microbiota. What is the most likely etiologic agent?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. human papilloma virus (HPV)
d. herpes simplex (HSV)
e. Treponema pallidum

d. herpes simplex (HSV)

494

Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to genital warts?
a. They can cause irritation and intense itching.
b. They are caused by a disease of the tropics that is uncommon in the United States.
c. They are caused by papillomaviruses.
d. They are associated with increased risk of cervical carcinoma.
e. They are sexually transmitted.

. They are caused by a disease of the tropics that is uncommon in the United States.

495

All of the following methods are used for diagnosis of syphilis EXCEPT __________.
a. darkfield microscopy
b. rapid plasmid reagin (RPR) test
c. VDRL test
d. Gram staining
e. fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test

d. Gram staining

496

Which of the following is NOT a disease of the reproductive system?
a. syphilis
b. gonorrhea
c. cystitis
d. genital herpes
e. candidiasis

e. candidiasis

497

A mother infected with gonorrhea has transmitted the disease to her infant as he passed through the birth canal. This infection in the infant is called __________.
a. gonorrheal endocarditis
b. gonorrheal meningitis
c. pharyngeal gonorrhea
d. gonorrheal arthritis
e. ophthalmia neonatorum

e. ophthalmia neonatorum

498

Which of the following statements is NOT true of pelvic inflammatory disease?
a. Barrier contraceptives and spermicide use may prevent infection.
b. The most common causative agents are Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
c. It may involve infection of the uterus, cervix, uterine tubes, or ovaries.
d. It may result in infertility.
e. Most infections are resolved without treatment.

e. Most infections are resolved without treatment.

499

A 20-year-old male reports to an STI clinic with symptoms of painful urination. A Gram stain of urethral exudate reveals gram-negative diplococci inside leukocytes. What is the causative agent of the patient's symptoms?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Candida albicans
c. Escherichia coli
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Chlamydia trachomatis

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

500

All of the following are exclusively sexually transmitted infections (STIs) EXCEPT __________.
a. nongonococcal urethritis
b. leptospirosis
c. syphilis
d. chancroid
e. gonorrhea

b. leptospirosis