1. Microbiological contaminants are best described as
a. unwanted microbes present on or in a substance.
2. Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except
e. hydrogen peroxide.
3. Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance
to physical and chemical
controls?
d. bacterial endospores
4. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and
microbial forms including
bacterial endospores is
b. sterilization.
5. The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove
and reduce
microorganisms and debris to safe levels is
d. sanitization.
6. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is
a. disinfection.
7. The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to
destroy or inhibit vegetative
pathogens is
c. antisepsis.
8. Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is
e. degermation.
9. Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?
d. sporicide
10. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?
c. cells in a culture die at a constant rate
11. Sterilization is achieved by
d. steam autoclave.
12. Dry heat
a. is less efficient than moist heat.
13. Endospores can be killed by
e. All of the choices are correct.
14. The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are
a. 121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.
15. The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample
at a specified temperature is
called the
b. thermal death time (TDT).
16. Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by
a. pasteurization.
17. Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to
e. gamma rays and X rays.
18. Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?
e. All of the choices are correct.
19. HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from
a. air.
20. Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?
a. tincture of iodine
21. All of the following are phenols or phenolics except
e. chloramines.
22. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are
b. vegetative bacteria and fungi.
23. Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing
mycobacteria in a capped
culture tube?
a. ultraviolet (germicidal) light
24. All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except
c. found in iodophors.
25. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?
e. aqueous glutaraldehyde
26. Iodophors include
b. Betadine.
27. The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two
phenolic rings, and is used
increasingly for handscrubbing,
neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical
skin
sites is
b. chlorhexidine.
28. Alcohols
e. All of the choices are correct.
29. Which is mismatched?
d. Merthiolate - silver
30. All of the following are correct about iodophors except
b. this formulation allows a quick release of free iodine.
31. The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is
a. ethylene oxide.
32. The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free
radicals and also decomposes
to O2 gas is
c. hydrogen peroxide.
33. All the following are correct about detergents except
e. they are active in the presence of organic matter.
34. Ethylene oxide is
a. sporicidal.
35. Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in
treating water because of the
possibility of cancer-causing
substances being produced?
b. chloramines
36. Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?
a. hydrogen peroxide
37. Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?
c. glutaraldehyde
38. All of the following are correct about food irradiation except
b. the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.
39. All of the following are benefits of food irradiation except
e. it makes the food less nutritious.
40. All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization except
c. lyophilization.
41. Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes
of newborn infants to prevent
gonococcal infections?
d. silver nitrate
42. Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?
b. Pseudomonas
43. All of the following are correct about the autoclave except
b. it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.
44. Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?
c. Alcohol
45. Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants.
b. False
46. Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.
b. False
47. The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can
interfere with the actions of
disinfectants.
a. True
48. When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial
cells, active younger cells
typically die more rapidly than older cells.
a. True
49. A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered dead.
b. False
50. Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures.
b. False
51. Filtration is an effective method to remove microbes from air and liquids.
a. True
52. Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter.
b. False
53. Aniline dyes like crystal violet have antimicrobial activity
particularly against gram positive
bacteria and some fungi.
a. True
54. Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses.
a. True
55. Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.
b. False
56. Chlorine dioxide and ethylene oxide are gaseous sterilants.
a. True
57. Which is mismatched?
c. Ehrlich - tetracycline
58. Salvarsan was
b. used to treat syphilis.
59. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms
that can inhibit or destroy
other microorganisms are called
a. antibiotics.
60. Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
e. broad-spectrum drugs.
61. Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
c. Staphylococcus.
62. Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
e. All of the choices are correct.
63. Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause
b. superinfections.
64. Penicillins and cephalosporins
e. block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
65. Sulfonamides
b. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
66. Aminoglycosides
c. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
67. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
a. a beta-lactam ring.
68. A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
d. clavulanic acid.
69. All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except
e. they are synthetic drugs.
70. Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
a. gentamicin
71. Gram negative rods are often treated with
c. aminoglycosides.
72. This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis
e. isoniazid.
73. Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?
d. trimethroprim
74. Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by
methicillin-resistant S. aureus and
vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus?
c. linezolid
75. All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except
c. are nephrotoxic.
76. Antimicrobics that are macrolides
c. include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin.
77. The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat
typhoid fever and brain
abscesses is
a. chloramphenicol.
78. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can
also alter normal flora causing
antibiotic-associated colitis is
b. clindamycin.
79. The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to
treat serious systemic fungal
infections is
c. amphotericin B.
80. The drug used for several protozoan infections is
e. metronidazole.
81. Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections.
d. helminthic
82. Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are
broad-spectrum azoles used to
treat _____ infections.
b. fungal
83. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs
compared to antibacterial
drugs because these organisms
c. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult.
84. Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
e. bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
85. An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
b. blocks DNA replication.
86. Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
b. HIV.
87. Acyclovir is used to treat
c. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.
88. The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
e. All of the choices are correct.
89. The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause
c. prevention of drug entry into the cell.
90. Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on
antimicrobic drugs include all the
following except
a. development of resistance to the drug.
91. A superinfection results from
d. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.
92. Drug susceptibility testing
b. determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.
93. A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several
antimicrobics in broth, then
incubates each drug dilution series
with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What
is
this microbiologist setting up?
d. MIC
94. A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus
the minimum effective dose for
that pathogen is assessed to
predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the
e. therapeutic index (TI).
95. Antimicrobics effective against only gram positive bacteria would be termed
b. narrow-spectrum drugs.
96. A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
d. using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.
97. Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?
e. All of the choices are correct.
98. All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
d. a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.
99. All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except
e. allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug.
100. Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying
foreign chemicals in the blood,
including drugs?
a. Liver
101. Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for
children due to permanent tooth
discoloration?
b. Tetraclycline
102. Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?
d. Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem.
103. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?
a. it is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis
104. All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except
b. they prevent assembly and release of the virus.
105. When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this
serious side effect is called
a superinfection.
b. False
106. A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically
modified in the laboratory after being
isolated from natural sources.
a. True
107. Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins.
a. True
108. Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.
b. False
109. Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial
cells during transformation,
transduction, and conjugation.
a. True
110. The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic
required to inhibit the growth of the
microbe.
a. True
111. Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
b. False
112. The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test
bacterium, to which small
discs containing a specific
concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.
a. True
113. An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice
compared to a drug with a high
therapeutic index.
b. False