Microbiology Final Exam

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Angelina College: Dr. Hudson
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1

The microbial production of alcohol from sugar is known as

Fermentation

2

Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?

Fungi are photosynthetic

3

Which of the following individuals pioneered the use of chemicals to reduce the incidence of infections during surgery?

Lister

4

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to

View protozoa and bacteria

5

Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?

They are important in the degradation of dead plants and animals.

6

Which of the following scientists provided evidence in favor of the concept of spontaneous generation?

Needham

7

The study of the body's defenses against pathogens is called

Immunology

8

Which of the following statements concerning Koch's postulates is false?

A suspected pathogen must be found in the majority of individuals with a particular disease.

9

The microbes commonly known as __________ are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally motile.

Protozoa

10

Microbes that can live in the presence or absence of oxygen are called

Facultative anaerobes

11

Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of

Responsiveness

12

Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic flagella is FALSE?

Prokaryotic flagella are composed of tubulin.

13

A bacterial cell moving toward light would be an example of

Positive phototaxis

14

Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE?

reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism.

15

Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial cell walls?

Tubulin

16

Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial flagella?

Tubulin

17

Which of the following statements concerning pili is FALSE?

Pili are longer than fimbriae and flagella.

18

Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms?

both fimbriae and glycocalyces

19

Bacterial pili can be described as

Specialized fimbriae

20

Short, hairlike structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called

cilia

21

Which of the following is an incorrect pairing?

Numerical aperture: curved glass

22

Which of the following is NOT associated with an electron microscope?

A prism

23

All of the following are types of light microscopes EXCEPT

scanning tunneling

24

The microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the __________ microscope.

Phase-contrast

25

If you were trying to visualize flagella without staining, which microscope would you use?

phase-contrast

26

Cellular organelles and viruses are generally measured in

Nanometers

27

Which of the following is(are) (a) magnifying lens(es)?

both the objective and the ocular

28

The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its

Numerical aperture

29

All of the following are associated with different types of phase microscopes EXCEPT

A dark-field stop

30

Why does immersion oil improve resolution?

It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed.

31

Carbon dioxide is a by-product of which of the following?

The Krebs Cycle

32

Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as

Competitive inhibition

33

Which of the following produces NADPH?

both the pentose phosphate and Entner-Doudoroff pathways

34

Which of the following statements concerning reduction reactions is FALSE?

An electron acceptor becomes more positively charged

35

Anabolic reactions may be characterized as

forming large molecules from smaller molecules

36

Pyruvic acid is a product of

both glycolysis and the Entner-Doudoroff pathway

37

Which of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is FALSE?

Macromolecules are converted into cell structures via catabolism

38

Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE?

If both requires the input of ATP and produces ATP

39

Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is FALSE?

They always function best at 37* C.

40

The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its

Substrate

41

An aquatic microbe that can grow only at the surface of the water is probably which of the following?

A phototroph

42

A(n) __________ organism is one that requires oxygen for growth.

Obligate aerobic

43

A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)

Obligate anaerobe

44

Which of the following growth factors would NOT be required by microbes which do not utilize electron transport chains?

Heme

45

Which of the following forms of oxygen is detoxified by the enzyme catalase?

Peroxide anion

46

In microbiology, the term growth usually refers to an increase in

The number of microbial cells

47

All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT

Protease

48

At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,

hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.

49

Nitrogen is a growth limiting nutrient for many organisms because

only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

50

A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a

Photoheterotroph

51

All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT

ionic bonds

52

Which of the following is NOT involved the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes?

Okazaki fragments

53

Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE?

The same RNA polymerase transcribes primer RNA, mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.

54

Which of the following is found at the 5 end of a DNA strand?

a phosphate group

55

Which of the following statements is true of bacterial plasmids?

They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously.

56

The bacterial chromosome is

both circular and found in a nucleoid

57

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases?

direction of polymerization

58

DNA helicases

break hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotides

59

Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors?

bacteriocin factors

60

Which of the following is involved in translation?

mRNA, rRNA and tRNA are all involved.

61

In the 20th century, scientists harnessed the natural metabolic reactions of bacteria to make __________ for the first time in an industrial setting.

acetone

62

Which of the following would be an appropriate temperature for the first step of PCR?

94°C

63

Which of the following processes did NOT contribute to the development of genetic engineering?

chemiosmosis

64

Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE?

Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size.

65

A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a(n)

cDNA library

66

Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments (the arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme)?

CCC↓GGG

67

Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as

DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs.

68

The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to

protect the cell from invading phages.

69

Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme?

the Gram reaction of the source bacterium

70

Put the following steps in the correct order needed to produce a recombinant vector containing a human gene insert.
I. Introduce the recombinant plasmid into a bacterial cell.
II. Isolate the human gene and the vector DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Ligate the DNA fragments to produce a recombinant plasmid.
IV. Grow bacterial cells on a medium containing a selective agent (such as an antibiotic).

II, III, I, IV

71

Which of the following is an example of sanitization?

A public toilet is treated with disinfectants.

72

Which of the following would NOT be bacteriostatic?

Autoclaving

73

Standard methods of sterilization are not effective in inactivating

Prions

74

Which of the following statements concerning microbial death is FALSE?

It is not an effective means of evaluating the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.

75

An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n)

low-level germicide

76

Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect

protein synthesis

77

Aseptic means

free of pathogens

78

Which of the following statements is true of disinfectants?

Disinfectants are used on inanimate surfaces

79

Which of the following is NOT an effective means of sterilization?

lyophilization

80

Seventy percent alcohol is effective against

enveloped viruses

81

Another term for the Kirby-Bauer test is the

diffusion susceptibility test.

82

Which of the following antibiotics disrupts cytoplasmic membrane function?

amphotericin B

83

Which scientist coined the term antibiotic?

Waksman

84

Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?

They have a broader spectrum of action.

85

Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?

bacterial cells

86

The most limited group of antimicrobial agents is the __________ drugs.

antiviral

87

An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?

Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.

88

Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid?

isoniazid

89

Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?

interference with alanine-alanine bridges

90

A large percentage of antibiotics and semisynthetic drugs are produced by members of the genus

Streptomyces

91

Which of the following is NOT associated with Corynebacterium?

Gram-negative

92

Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?

palisades

93

The archaea known as halophiles

are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.

94

The largest known group of archaea is the

methanogens

95

Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?

the deoxyribonucleotides

96

Endospores

can be produced when nutrients are scarce.

97

Bergey's Manual contains

classification schemes for prokaryotes

98

Which of the following types of microbes might be found in the Dead Sea?

halophiles

99

Pleomorphic bacteria

vary in shape and size

100

What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?

cytoplasmic membrane

101

Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate?

A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells

102

Replication of the DNA occurs during

interphase

103

Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during __________ of mitosis.

anaphase

104

Which of the following is a protozoan stage that allows for transmission of intestinal parasites from one host to another?

cyst

105

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Toxoplasma: cilia

106

Sister chromatids separate during __________ of meiosis.

anaphase II

107

An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a

tetrad

108

Merozoites are a result of

schizogony

109

The fusion of two gametes produces a

zygote

110

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

fungi: usually diploid

111

Host specificity of a virus is due to

interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.

112

The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

protection and recognition

113

Which of the following infectious particles do not have protein in their structure?

viroids

114

Which of the following statements concerning viruses is FALSE?

Viruses enter a cell to complete the replication they have begun extracellularly.

115

Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?

Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.

116

Who was the first person to demonstrate the existence of viruses?

Ivanowsky

117

Viruses are primarily classified according to their

type of nucleic acid

118

During the intracellular state, a virus exists as

a nucleic acid

119

How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?

they have no extracellular state

120

Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage?

envelope

121

The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus is best described as

both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

122

Axenic systems of the body include

the kidneys

123

A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as

mutualism

124

Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE?

The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.

125

Mutualism is a relationship

that sometimes provides benefits for both members such that one or both parties cannot live without the other.

126

Symptoms are

subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

127

Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy

128

Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?

parenteral route

129

In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease?

A pathogen is introduced into the body when the person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal cavity by way of tears

130

Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?

microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus

131

Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

132

Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection?

eosinophil

133

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease?

antibodies

134

Which of the following is NOT one of the signs of inflammation?

odor

135

Microbial antagonism refers to

the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body.

136

Chemotaxis is the

movement of cells toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

137

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?

the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

138

Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis?

dendritic cells

139

Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is FALSE?

It has goblet cells

140

Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

141

Which of the following produces an exogenous antigen?

a bacterium outside a cell

142

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.

143

You step on something in the yard and get a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

lymph nodes of the groin

144

Large accumulations of young self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in

the MALT and lymph nodes

145

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.

146

Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT?

the spleen

147

Antigens are

specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.

148

The type of immunoglobulin that forms a pentamer is

IgM

149

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE?

The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

150

The designation "B" for B lymphocytes comes from the

bone marrow where these cells mature

151

The discovery and use of __________ have greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases.

immunoglobulins

152

Variolation was first used

to immunize the Chinese against smallpox

153

What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?

active immunization by vaccination

154

A vaccine is currently available against which of the following microbes?

poliovirus

155

Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE?

It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen

156

Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against

anthrax and rabies

157

An adjuvant is a substance that

increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen

158

Which of the following statements regarding variolation is FALSE?

It was risk free

159

he vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) __________ vaccine.

attenuated

160

Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by

genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

161

Which of the following bind the constant region of IgE?

eosinophils and mast cells

162

Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

watery eyes after exposure to animal dander

163

When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur?

bronchial spasms and increased mucus production

164

What is the function of the proteases released when mast cells degranulate?

destruction of nearby cells and activation of the complement system

165

How can type I allergic reactions be diagnosed?

by injecting very small quantities of dilute solutions of suspected allergens under the skin

166

Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction?

immune system attack on the thyroid gland

167

Which of the following is a connective tissue cell which produces leukotrienes and prostaglandins?

mast cell

168

Which of the following allergic reactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity?

dermatitis in response to latex gloves

169

Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?

IgG

170

Which of the following substances released during a type I hypersensitivity reaction stimulates the release of eosinophils from the bone marrow?

peptides

171

Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection?

rheumatic fever

172

Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why?

they produce β-lactamase.

173

A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is a likely diagnosis?

toxic shock syndrome

174

Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?

It is considered a common complication of pyoderma

175

The presence of ________ can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Gram-positive cocci.

catalase enzyme

176

Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

177

What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?

It can produce coagulase

178

Streptococci are frequently classified by

Lancefield antigen destinations

179

How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells?

they have hyaluronic acid capsules

180

Which of the following is an antiphagocytic factor of Staphylococcus?

protein A

181

Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE?

The gonococci induce lasting immunity

182

Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms?

fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

183

What virulence factor(s) do all Gram-negative bacteria share?

lipid A

184

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is

an acute painful infection with pus discharge.

185

Which of the following are virulence factors contributing the pathogenicity of Neisseria species?

both a capsule and fimbriae

186

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by

both motility and the ability to ferment lactose

187

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE?

There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains

188

The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of

the release of lipid A into the tissues, triggering severe inflammation and DIC.

189

Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

the vagina

190

Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis?

the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in CSF phagocytes

191

Rickettsiosis is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that

infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue.

192

The rash of spotted fever rickettsiosis is the result of

capillary damage

193

Which of the following is the correct pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector?

R prowazekii; louse

194

Which of the following statements regarding Ehrlichia is FALSE?

It usually causes a spotted rash similar to Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

195

Transovarian transmission is a process in which

an infected female vector transmits the pathogen to the eggs forming in its ovaries.

196

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, bloody diarrhea?

Campylobacter jejuni

197

Shortly after returning from a trip to several continents, a young man experiences episodes of fever, chills, muscle aches, and headache that recur at irregular intervals. The young man reports carrying only a large backpack and commonly staying in hostels along the way while traveling. Which of the following diseases is he likely to have?

louse-borne relapsing fever

198

What type of cell does Ehrlichia chaffeensis infect in humans?

monocytes

199

Red mites (chiggers) spread ________ among both humans and rodents.

Orientia tsutsugamushi

200

Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted by

the human body louse Pediculus humanus.

201

What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?

"steering wheel" or "captain's wheel" buds visible by brightfield microscopy

202

Which of the following techniques reveal(s) the presence of fungal cells in tissues?

both KOH treatment and Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining

203

Opportunistic fungi

are normal microbiota for many individuals.

204

Which of the following is NOT a major contributor to opportunistic mycoses?

growth of fungus in food

205

Which of the following media is preferred for the culture of fungi?

Sabouraud dextrose agar

206

Most mycoses are difficult to treat because

fungal cells provide few targets for selective toxicity.

207

All of the true pathogen fungi discussed in this chapter are

members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic.

208

Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogenic fungus in humans?

Candida albicans

209

Which of the following types of fungal disease is primarily the result of ingestion?

toxicosis

210

Ocular histoplasmosis is a(n)

type I hypersensitivity immune reaction.

211

The definitive host of a parasite is

where the mature form of the parasite occurs.

212

Which of the following is the most common parasitic disease in industrialized nations?

Trichomonas infection

213

Trypanosoma cruzi is introduced into the body by

feces containing trypomastigotes contaminating a bite wound.

214

The protozoans known as apicomplexans

reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites.

215

The presence of active motile multiflagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with

Trichomonas vaginalis.

216

Which of the following is an accidental parasite of humans?

Acanthamoeba

217

Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient's immune system cannot clear the infection and develop immunity because the parasite

changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates.

218

Which of the following organisms can colonize the nasal cavity and enter the brain to cause meningoencephalitis?

Naegleria

219

Which of the following is a ciliated pathogen of the intestinal tract?

Balantidium

220

Which of the following is the same for both Trypanosoma cruzi and Trypanosoma brucei?

importance of early diagnosis and treatment

221

Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans?

Herpesviridae

222

What cell type can the Simplexviruses infect latently?

neurons

223

Which of the following lesions is a hard, raised sore?

papules

224

Which of the follow produces a rash that leaves permanent scars on the skin?

Poxviridae

225

High fever, headache, extreme fatigue, and a rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms consistent with infection with

poxvirus

226

A teenager shows up at a clinic with lesions on his face. The sores are raised, light-colored bumps with a waxy texture. A few similar lesions are present on the torso as well. With which of the following viruses might he be infected?

molluscum contagiosum

227

Which of the following characteristics are common to Poxviridae, Herpesviridae, and Hepadnaviridae?

double-stranded DNA in the virion and the presence of an envelope

228

What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses?

they contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA.

229

Which of the following poxviruses are zoonoses?

both cowpox and monkeypox

230

Which of the following statements is true of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox?

The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid.

231

Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that they

are transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

232

The "common cold" is so common because

100+ strains of rhinovirus and several other types of virus cause "colds."

233

Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30-40 years later in the form of

crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles.

234

Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE?

They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold.

235

Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and a yellow color of the sclera and skin, without hemorrhaging or kidney damage, are typically observed with

hepatitis

236

Which vaccine-preventable disease caused by an RNA virus has been nearly eradicated?

polio

237

Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting are signs and symptoms associated with which of the following viruses?

norovirus

238

Which of the following is a family of six-pointed, star-shaped viruses that cause gastrointestinal diseases?

Caliciviridae

239

The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is

bulbar poliomyelitis

240

Which of the following RNA virus families include the smallest viral pathogens in animals?

Picornaviridae