Microbiology Final Exam
The microbial production of alcohol from sugar is known as
Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?
Fungi are photosynthetic
Which of the following individuals pioneered the use of chemicals to reduce the incidence of infections during surgery?
Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to
View protozoa and bacteria
Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?
They are important in the degradation of dead plants and animals.
Which of the following scientists provided evidence in favor of the concept of spontaneous generation?
The study of the body's defenses against pathogens is called
Which of the following statements concerning Koch's postulates is false?
A suspected pathogen must be found in the majority of individuals with a particular disease.
The microbes commonly known as __________ are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally motile.
Microbes that can live in the presence or absence of oxygen are called
Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of
Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic flagella is FALSE?
Prokaryotic flagella are composed of tubulin.
A bacterial cell moving toward light would be an example of
Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE?
reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism.
Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial cell walls?
Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial flagella?
Which of the following statements concerning pili is FALSE?
Pili are longer than fimbriae and flagella.
Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms?
both fimbriae and glycocalyces
Bacterial pili can be described as
Short, hairlike structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called
Which of the following is an incorrect pairing?
Numerical aperture: curved glass
Which of the following is NOT associated with an electron microscope?
All of the following are types of light microscopes EXCEPT
The microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the __________ microscope.
If you were trying to visualize flagella without staining, which microscope would you use?
Cellular organelles and viruses are generally measured in
Which of the following is(are) (a) magnifying lens(es)?
both the objective and the ocular
The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its
All of the following are associated with different types of phase microscopes EXCEPT
A dark-field stop
Why does immersion oil improve resolution?
It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed.
Carbon dioxide is a by-product of which of the following?
The Krebs Cycle
Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as
Which of the following produces NADPH?
both the pentose phosphate and Entner-Doudoroff pathways
Which of the following statements concerning reduction reactions is FALSE?
An electron acceptor becomes more positively charged
Anabolic reactions may be characterized as
forming large molecules from smaller molecules
Pyruvic acid is a product of
both glycolysis and the Entner-Doudoroff pathway
Which of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is FALSE?
Macromolecules are converted into cell structures via catabolism
Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE?
If both requires the input of ATP and produces ATP
Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is FALSE?
They always function best at 37* C.
The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its
An aquatic microbe that can grow only at the surface of the water is probably which of the following?
A(n) __________ organism is one that requires oxygen for growth.
A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)
Which of the following growth factors would NOT be required by microbes which do not utilize electron transport chains?
Which of the following forms of oxygen is detoxified by the enzyme catalase?
In microbiology, the term growth usually refers to an increase in
The number of microbial cells
All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT
At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,
hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.
Nitrogen is a growth limiting nutrient for many organisms because
only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.
A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a
All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT
Which of the following is NOT involved the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes?
Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE?
The same RNA polymerase transcribes primer RNA, mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.
Which of the following is found at the 5 end of a DNA strand?
a phosphate group
Which of the following statements is true of bacterial plasmids?
They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously.
The bacterial chromosome is
both circular and found in a nucleoid
Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases?
direction of polymerization
break hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotides
Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors?
Which of the following is involved in translation?
mRNA, rRNA and tRNA are all involved.
In the 20th century, scientists harnessed the natural metabolic reactions of bacteria to make __________ for the first time in an industrial setting.
Which of the following would be an appropriate temperature for the first step of PCR?
Which of the following processes did NOT contribute to the development of genetic engineering?
Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE?
Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size.
A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a(n)
Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments (the arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme)?
Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as
DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs.
The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to
protect the cell from invading phages.
Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme?
the Gram reaction of the source bacterium
Put the following steps in the correct order needed to produce a
recombinant vector containing a human gene insert.
I. Introduce the recombinant plasmid into a bacterial cell.
II. Isolate the human gene and the vector DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Ligate the DNA fragments to produce a recombinant plasmid.
IV. Grow bacterial cells on a medium containing a selective agent (such as an antibiotic).
II, III, I, IV
Which of the following is an example of sanitization?
A public toilet is treated with disinfectants.
Which of the following would NOT be bacteriostatic?
Standard methods of sterilization are not effective in inactivating
Which of the following statements concerning microbial death is FALSE?
It is not an effective means of evaluating the efficacy of antimicrobial agents.
An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n)
Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect
free of pathogens
Which of the following statements is true of disinfectants?
Disinfectants are used on inanimate surfaces
Which of the following is NOT an effective means of sterilization?
Seventy percent alcohol is effective against
Another term for the Kirby-Bauer test is the
diffusion susceptibility test.
Which of the following antibiotics disrupts cytoplasmic membrane function?
Which scientist coined the term antibiotic?
Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?
They have a broader spectrum of action.
Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?
The most limited group of antimicrobial agents is the __________ drugs.
An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?
Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.
Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid?
Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?
interference with alanine-alanine bridges
A large percentage of antibiotics and semisynthetic drugs are produced by members of the genus
Which of the following is NOT associated with Corynebacterium?
Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?
The archaea known as halophiles
are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.
The largest known group of archaea is the
Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?
can be produced when nutrients are scarce.
Bergey's Manual contains
classification schemes for prokaryotes
Which of the following types of microbes might be found in the Dead Sea?
vary in shape and size
What bacterial structure is responsible for separating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?
Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate?
A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells
Replication of the DNA occurs during
Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during __________ of mitosis.
Which of the following is a protozoan stage that allows for transmission of intestinal parasites from one host to another?
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Sister chromatids separate during __________ of meiosis.
An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a
Merozoites are a result of
The fusion of two gametes produces a
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
fungi: usually diploid
Host specificity of a virus is due to
interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.
The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?
protection and recognition
Which of the following infectious particles do not have protein in their structure?
Which of the following statements concerning viruses is FALSE?
Viruses enter a cell to complete the replication they have begun extracellularly.
Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?
Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.
Who was the first person to demonstrate the existence of viruses?
Viruses are primarily classified according to their
type of nucleic acid
During the intracellular state, a virus exists as
a nucleic acid
How are fungal viruses different from viruses that infect other organisms?
they have no extracellular state
Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage?
The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus is best described as
both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.
Axenic systems of the body include
A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as
Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE?
The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.
Mutualism is a relationship
that sometimes provides benefits for both members such that one or both parties cannot live without the other.
subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.
Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?
microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy
Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?
In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease?
A pathogen is introduced into the body when the person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal cavity by way of tears
Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?
microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus
Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?
tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.
Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection?
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease?
Which of the following is NOT one of the signs of inflammation?
Microbial antagonism refers to
the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body.
Chemotaxis is the
movement of cells toward or away from a chemical stimulus.
Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?
the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.
Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis?
Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is FALSE?
It has goblet cells
Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of
both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.
Which of the following produces an exogenous antigen?
a bacterium outside a cell
Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?
To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.
You step on something in the yard and get a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the
lymph nodes of the groin
Large accumulations of young self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in
the MALT and lymph nodes
Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?
B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.
Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT?
specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.
The type of immunoglobulin that forms a pentamer is
Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE?
The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.
The designation "B" for B lymphocytes comes from the
bone marrow where these cells mature
The discovery and use of __________ have greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases.
Variolation was first used
to immunize the Chinese against smallpox
What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?
active immunization by vaccination
A vaccine is currently available against which of the following microbes?
Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE?
It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen
Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against
anthrax and rabies
An adjuvant is a substance that
increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen
Which of the following statements regarding variolation is FALSE?
It was risk free
he vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) __________ vaccine.
Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by
genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
Which of the following bind the constant region of IgE?
eosinophils and mast cells
Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
watery eyes after exposure to animal dander
When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur?
bronchial spasms and increased mucus production
What is the function of the proteases released when mast cells degranulate?
destruction of nearby cells and activation of the complement system
How can type I allergic reactions be diagnosed?
by injecting very small quantities of dilute solutions of suspected allergens under the skin
Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction?
immune system attack on the thyroid gland
Which of the following is a connective tissue cell which produces leukotrienes and prostaglandins?
Which of the following allergic reactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity?
dermatitis in response to latex gloves
Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?
Which of the following substances released during a type I hypersensitivity reaction stimulates the release of eosinophils from the bone marrow?
Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection?
Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why?
they produce β-lactamase.
A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is a likely diagnosis?
toxic shock syndrome
Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?
It is considered a common complication of pyoderma
The presence of ________ can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Gram-positive cocci.
Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?
It can produce coagulase
Streptococci are frequently classified by
Lancefield antigen destinations
How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells?
they have hyaluronic acid capsules
Which of the following is an antiphagocytic factor of Staphylococcus?
Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE?
The gonococci induce lasting immunity
Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms?
fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
What virulence factor(s) do all Gram-negative bacteria share?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is
an acute painful infection with pus discharge.
Which of the following are virulence factors contributing the pathogenicity of Neisseria species?
both a capsule and fimbriae
Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by
both motility and the ability to ferment lactose
Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE?
There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains
The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of
the release of lipid A into the tissues, triggering severe inflammation and DIC.
Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis?
the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in CSF phagocytes
Rickettsiosis is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that
infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue.
The rash of spotted fever rickettsiosis is the result of
Which of the following is the correct pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector?
R prowazekii; louse
Which of the following statements regarding Ehrlichia is FALSE?
It usually causes a spotted rash similar to Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Transovarian transmission is a process in which
an infected female vector transmits the pathogen to the eggs forming in its ovaries.
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, bloody diarrhea?
Shortly after returning from a trip to several continents, a young man experiences episodes of fever, chills, muscle aches, and headache that recur at irregular intervals. The young man reports carrying only a large backpack and commonly staying in hostels along the way while traveling. Which of the following diseases is he likely to have?
louse-borne relapsing fever
What type of cell does Ehrlichia chaffeensis infect in humans?
Red mites (chiggers) spread ________ among both humans and rodents.
Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted by
the human body louse Pediculus humanus.
What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
"steering wheel" or "captain's wheel" buds visible by brightfield microscopy
Which of the following techniques reveal(s) the presence of fungal cells in tissues?
both KOH treatment and Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining
are normal microbiota for many individuals.
Which of the following is NOT a major contributor to opportunistic mycoses?
growth of fungus in food
Which of the following media is preferred for the culture of fungi?
Sabouraud dextrose agar
Most mycoses are difficult to treat because
fungal cells provide few targets for selective toxicity.
All of the true pathogen fungi discussed in this chapter are
members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic.
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogenic fungus in humans?
Which of the following types of fungal disease is primarily the result of ingestion?
Ocular histoplasmosis is a(n)
type I hypersensitivity immune reaction.
The definitive host of a parasite is
where the mature form of the parasite occurs.
Which of the following is the most common parasitic disease in industrialized nations?
Trypanosoma cruzi is introduced into the body by
feces containing trypomastigotes contaminating a bite wound.
The protozoans known as apicomplexans
reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites.
The presence of active motile multiflagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with
Which of the following is an accidental parasite of humans?
Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient's immune system cannot clear the infection and develop immunity because the parasite
changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates.
Which of the following organisms can colonize the nasal cavity and enter the brain to cause meningoencephalitis?
Which of the following is a ciliated pathogen of the intestinal tract?
Which of the following is the same for both Trypanosoma cruzi and Trypanosoma brucei?
importance of early diagnosis and treatment
Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans?
What cell type can the Simplexviruses infect latently?
Which of the following lesions is a hard, raised sore?
Which of the follow produces a rash that leaves permanent scars on the skin?
High fever, headache, extreme fatigue, and a rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms consistent with infection with
A teenager shows up at a clinic with lesions on his face. The sores are raised, light-colored bumps with a waxy texture. A few similar lesions are present on the torso as well. With which of the following viruses might he be infected?
Which of the following characteristics are common to Poxviridae, Herpesviridae, and Hepadnaviridae?
double-stranded DNA in the virion and the presence of an envelope
What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses?
they contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA.
Which of the following poxviruses are zoonoses?
both cowpox and monkeypox
Which of the following statements is true of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox?
The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid.
Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that they
are transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
The "common cold" is so common because
100+ strains of rhinovirus and several other types of virus cause "colds."
Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30-40 years later in the form of
crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles.
Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE?
They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold.
Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and a yellow color of the sclera and skin, without hemorrhaging or kidney damage, are typically observed with
Which vaccine-preventable disease caused by an RNA virus has been nearly eradicated?
Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting are signs and symptoms associated with which of the following viruses?
Which of the following is a family of six-pointed, star-shaped viruses that cause gastrointestinal diseases?
The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is
Which of the following RNA virus families include the smallest viral pathogens in animals?