Campbell Biology: 1407 Final Flashcards

The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following?
A) every human cell
B) each human chromosome
C) the entire DNA of a single human
D) the entire human population
E) each human gene

Which of the following defines a genome?
A) representation of a complete set of a cell's polypeptides
B) the complete set of an organism's polypeptides
C) the complete set of a species' polypeptides
D) a karyotype
E) the complete set of an organism's genes

The human X and Y chromosomes
A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D) include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E) include only genes that govern sex determination.

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?

A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.

Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes?
A) an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase
B) failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm
C) fertilization of a 23 chromosome human egg by a 22 chromosome sperm of a closely related species
D) an error in the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
E) lack of chiasmata in prophase I

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) chromosome replication
B) synapsis of chromosomes
C) production of daughter cells
D) alignment of chromosomes at the equator
E) condensation of chromatin

The following question refers to the essential steps in meiosis described below.

1. Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. Alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. Separation of sister chromatids
4. Separation of the homologs; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. Synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs

41) Which of the steps takes place in both mitosis and meiosis?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 2 and 3 only
E) 2, 3, and 5

What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?

A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one.
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.

Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F₂ or F₃ generation?

A) to obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics
B) to observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear
C) to observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear
D) to distinguish which alleles were segregating
E) to be able to describe the frequency of recombination

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. What does this suggest?
A) that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
B) that the trait shows incomplete dominance
C) that a blending of traits has occurred
D) that the parents were both heterozygous for a single trait
E) that each offspring has the same alleles for each of two traits

When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

Why did the F₁ offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties?
A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
C) The traits blended together during fertilization.
D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
E) Different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.

Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?

A) 1/16
B) 3/16
C) 3/8
D) 1/2
E) 9/16

In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
A) 1
B) 1/2
C) 1/4
D) 1/6
E) 0

Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple alleles
C) pleiotropy
D) epistasis

Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
A) pink flowers in snapdragons
B) the ABO blood group in humans
C) Huntington's disease in humans
D) white and purple flower color in peas
E) skin pigmentation in humans

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F₁ offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F₂ is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure 14.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

37) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 4 only
E) 1, 2, and 3

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F₁ offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F₂ is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure 14.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

38) Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?
A) 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 2 and 3
E) 2, 3, and 4

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F₁ offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F₂ is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure 14.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

39) Which of the plants will be true-breeding?
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
D) 1 only
E) 1 and 2 only

The following question refer to the pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

40) What is the genotype of individual II-5?
A) WW
B) Ww
C) ww
D) WW or ww
E) ww or Ww

The following question refer to the pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

41) What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

The following question refer to the pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

42) What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww?
A) 3/4
B) 1/4
C) 2/4
D) 2/3
E) 1

Use the following pedigree (Figure 14.3) for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis.

43) What is the genotype of the deceased individual in generation II?
A) homozygous for a gene for colon cancer
B) homozygous for both cancer alleles from his mother
C) heterozygous for a gene for colon cancer
D) affected by the same colon cancer environmental factor as his mother
E) carrier of all of the several known genes for colon cancer

Use the following pedigree (Figure 14.3) for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis.

44) In each generation of this family after generation I, the age at diagnosis is significantly lower than would be found in nonfamilial (sporadic) cases of this cancer (~ 63 years). What is the most likely reason?

A) Members of this family know to be checked for colon cancer early in life.
B) Hereditary (or familial) cases of this cancer typically occur at earlier ages than do nonfamilial forms.
C) This is pure chance; it would not be expected if you were to look at a different family.
D) This cancer requires mutations in more than this one gene.
E) Affected members of this family are born with colon cancer, and it can be detected whenever they are first tested.

Use the following pedigree (Figure 14.3) for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis.

45) From this pedigree, how does this trait seem to be inherited?
A) from mothers
B) as an autosomal recessive
C) as a result of epistasis
D) as an autosomal dominant
E) as an incomplete dominant

When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F₁ generation flies to each other, the F₂ generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?

A) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
B) The gene involved is on the X chromosome.
C) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males.
D) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
E) Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.

A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including three X chromosomes. Which of the following describes her expected phenotype?

A) masculine characteristics such as facial hair
B) enlarged genital structures
C) excessive emotional instability
D) normal female
E) sterile female

Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because

A) male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
B) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
C) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
D) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
E) mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations.

SRY is best described in which of the following ways?

A) a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development
B) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome
C) a gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development
D) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome
E) a gene required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood

What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?
A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.

In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 75%

A phenotypically normal prospective couple seeks genetic counseling because the man knows that he has a translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 that has been exchanged with a portion of his chromosome 12. Although he is normal because his translocation is balanced, he and his wife want to know the probability that his sperm will be abnormal. What is your prognosis regarding his sperm?

A) 1/4 will be normal, 1/4 will have the translocation, and 1/2 will have duplications and deletions.
B) All will carry the same translocation as the father.
C) None will carry the translocation since abnormal sperm will die.
D) His sperm will be sterile and the couple might consider adoption.
E) 1/2 will be normal and the rest will have the father's translocation.

Which of the following is true of aneuploidies in general?
A) A monosomy is more frequent than a trisomy.
B) 45 X is the only known human live-born monosomy.
C) Some human aneuploidies have selective advantage in some environments.
D) Of all human aneuploidies, only Down syndrome is associated with mental retardation.
E) An aneuploidy resulting in the deletion of a chromosome segment is less serious than a duplication.

Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for electron transport. Therefore, in which body systems would you expect most mitochondrial gene mutations to be exhibited?
A) the immune system and the blood
B) the excretory and respiratory systems
C) the skin and senses
D) the nervous and muscular systems
E) the circulation system

This a map of four genes on a chromosome (See Image)

51) Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
A) A and W
B) W and E
C) E and G
D) A and E
E) A and G

The pedigree in Figure 15.3 shows the transmission of a trait in a particular family. Based on this pattern of transmission, the trait is most likely
A) mitochondrial.
B) autosomal recessive.
C) sex-linked dominant.
D) sex-linked recessive.
E) autosomal dominant.

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

54) How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?
A) all
B) none
C) half
D) one out of four
E) three out of four

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

55) What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?
A) none
B) half
C) one out of four
D) three out of four
E) all

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

56) They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

The host range of a virus is determined by
A) the enzymes carried by the virus.
B) whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA.
C) the proteins in the host's cytoplasm.
D) the enzymes produced by the virus before it infects the cell.
E) the proteins on its surface and that of the host.

Most human-infecting viruses are maintained in the human population only. However, a zoonosis is a disease that is transmitted from other vertebrates to humans, at least sporadically, without requiring viral mutation. Which of the following is the best example of a zoonosis?
A) rabies
B) herpesvirus
C) smallpox
D) HIV
E) hepatitis virus

Which of the following accounts for someone who has had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore getting flare-ups for the rest of his or her life?
A) re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain
B) re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain
C) co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms
D) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei
E) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm

Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?
A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced.
B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.
C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.
D) A large number of phages are released at a time.
E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations.

Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?
A) RNA nucleotides are more unstable than DNA nucleotides.
B) Replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading.
C) RNA viruses replicate faster.
D) RNA viruses can incorporate a variety of nonstandard bases.
E) RNA viruses are more sensitive to mutagens.

What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
A) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA.
B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.
D) It translates viral RNA into proteins.
E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands.

Which of the following can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans?
A) taking vitamins
B) getting vaccinated
C) taking antibiotics
D) applying antiseptics
E) taking nucleoside analogs that inhibit transcription

What are prions?
A) mobile segments of DNA
B) tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants
C) viral DNA that has had to attach itself to the host genome
D) misfolded versions of normal brain protein
E) viruses that invade bacteria

Antiviral drugs that have become useful are usually associated with which of the following properties?
A) ability to remove all viruses from the infected host
B) interference with viral replication
C) prevention of the host from becoming infected
D) removal of viral proteins
E) removal of viral mRNAs

To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to
A) spread to primates such as chimpanzees.
B) develop into a virus with a different host range.
C) become capable of human-to-human transmission.
D) arise independently in chickens in North and South America.
E) become much more pathogenic.

RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
D) these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
E) these enzymes cannot be made in host cells.

Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population?
A) genetic variation among individuals
B) variation among individuals caused by environmental factors
C) sexual reproduction
D) Three of the responses are correct.
E) Two of the responses are correct.

53) Within six months of effectively using methicillin to treat S. aureus infections in a community, all new infections were caused by MRSA. How can this result best be explained?
A) S. aureus can resist vaccines.
B) A patient must have become infected with MRSA from another community.
C) In response to the drug, S. aureus began making drug-resistant versions of the protein targeted by the drug.
D) Some drug-resistant bacteria were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.
E) The drug caused the S. aureus DNA to change.

he rise of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) can be considered to be an example of artificial selection because
A) humans purposefully raise MRSA in large fermenters in an attempt to make the bacteria ever-more resistant.
B) S. aureus is cultivated by humans to replenish the soil with nutrients.
C) humans synthesize methicillin and create environments in which bacteria frequently come into contact with methicillin.
D) Humans are becoming resistant to bacteria by taking methicillin

Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ?
A) The appendix can be surgically removed with no immediate ill effects.
B) The appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids.
C) The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue.
D) Individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a below-average-sized appendix.
E) In a million years, the human species might completely lack an appendix.

What must be true of any organ that is described as vestigial?
A) It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor.
C) It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
D) It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor.

12) Which of the following is a true statement concerning genetic variation?
A) It is created by the direct action of natural selection.
B) It arises in response to changes in the environment.
C) It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.
D) It tends to be reduced by the processes involved when diploid organisms produce gametes.
E) A population that has a higher average heterozygosity has less genetic variation than one with a lower average heterozygosity.

25) Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined, thereby producing a genetically distinctive virus, which can subsequently cause widespread disease.

The production of new types of flu virus in the manner described above is most similar to the phenomenon of
A) bottleneck effect.
B) founder effect.
C) natural selection.
D) gene flow.
E) sexual selection.