Chapter 21 - Orthopedic Surgery

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1

Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?

Calcium

2

Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?

Femur

3

Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?

Calcaneus

4

What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?

Osteomyelitis

5

Where is the area of active bone growth?

epiphyseal plate

6

What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?

Bursa

7

What type of bone is the patella?

Sesamoid

8

What is the medical term for spongy bone?

Cancellous

9

What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection?

Periosteum

10

In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?

flat and irregular

11

The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?

Diarthrosis

12

The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?

Synarthrosis

13

Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint?

Temporomandibular

14

The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?

Pivot

15

Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

Femoroacetabular

16

What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up?

joint mice

17

In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?

Knee

18

Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:

great toe

19

Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"?

genu varum

20

Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?

Subluxation

21

Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?

Greenstick

22

Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?

asterisk ( * )

23

Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?

Abduction

24

The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement?

plantar flexion

25

Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?

Hormonal

26

Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?

rheumatoid arthritis

27

What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion?

Exostosis

28

What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?

Osteomalacia

29

How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?

Five

30

In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support?

callus formation

31

Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?

compartmental syndrome

32

The term C-arm refers to a(n):

fluoroscopic machine

33

Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?

Bence Jones protein

34

Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon?

Lowman bone holder

35

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?

Cobra

36

Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position?

vacuum beanbag

37

Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm?

fracture table

38

What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?

Exsanguinations

39

Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT?

lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour

40

Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?

Manufacturer

41

Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?

powered shaving system

42

Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?

FDA

43

Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone?

polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

44

What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?

bone cement

45

Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?

Clavicle

46

The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?

Scapula

47

The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:

rotator cuff

48

Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?

Glenohumeral

49

Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?

Humerus

50

What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons?

Tubercle

51

Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis?

lactated Ringer's

52

Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?

blunt probe

53

A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)?

labrum (cartilage)

54

Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT:

Colles'

55

Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo:

acromioplasty

56

What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?

Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.

57

Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are:

serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty

58

All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:

moderate impingement syndrome

59

Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?

intramedullary reamer

60

Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture?

Radius

61

What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture?

external fixation

62

Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?

open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

63

Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis?

Femur

64

What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?

Acetabulum

65

Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?

Head

66

A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for:

dynamic hip screw

67

Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture?

fracture table

68

Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?

over 65 years

69

Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?

space suit or body exhaust suits

70

Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?

Charnley

71

What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove?

Cartilage

72

What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur?

lap sponges

73

Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty?

reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial

74

Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral:

nails

75

Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a:

guide pin

76

In which anatomical structure is the patella contained?

quadriceps tendon

77

Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee?

anterior cruciate

78

What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee?

Cushioning

79

Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone?

Tibia

80

Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:

autografts for ACL repair

81

All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT:

Steinman pins

82

Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?

amputation

83

Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology?

Mayo stand cover

84

Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT:

quadricompartmental

85

Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?

bunionectomy

86

Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body?

Achilles

87

Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.

T

88

Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.

F

89

There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.

F

90

Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.

T