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Bio II Final Review; Test 4

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1

Which of the following patterns of reproduction are found only among invertebrate animals?
A) sexual and asexual reproduction
B) external and internal fertilization
C) hermaphroditism and parthenogenesis
D) pheromonal and hormonal coordination
E) fission and budding

E

2

Sexual reproduction
A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.
C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction.
D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats.
E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring.

B

3

What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?

A) genetic recombination during mitosis

B) crossing over during mitosis

C) genetic recombination during meiosis

D) sexual reproduction does not produce genetically different offspring

C

4

In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization. However, internal fertilization offers the advantage that
A) it is the only way to ensure the survival of the species.
B) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction.
C) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment.
D) it permits the most rapid population increase.
E) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability.

C

5

Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that
A) they both have the same number of chromosomes.
B) they are approximately the same size.
C) they each have a flagellum that provides motility.
D) they are produced from puberty until death.
E) they are formed before birth.

A

6

Which of the following correctly describes a difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

A) spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell. in spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice.

B) in spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice

C) spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell

D) spermatogenesis results in one mature sperm cell, while oogenesis results in four mature effe cells.

C

7

Human sperm cells first arise in the
A) prostate gland.
B) vas deferens.
C) seminiferous tubules.
D) epididymis.
E) Sertoli cells.

C

8

Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the
A) vas deferens.
B) urinary bladder.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) urethra.
E) ureter.

D

9

In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are
A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal.
B) follicular → luteal → secretory.
C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory.
D) follicular → ovulation → luteal.
E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation.

D

10

A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from a structure in the brain is
A) testosterone.
B) estradiol.
C) progesterone.
D) follicle-stimulating hormone.
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

E

11

A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of
A) inhibin.
B) testosterone.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
E) progesterone.

B

12

Which of the following best describes a model organism?

A) It is often pictured in textbooks and easy for students to imagine

B) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time

C) It is well studied, it is easy to grow and results are widely applicable

D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists

C

13

During fertilization, the acrosomal contents
A) block polyspermy.
B) help propel more sperm toward the egg.
C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg.
D) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm.
E) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm.

C

14

In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer lasting "slow block" to polyspermy, respectively, are
A) the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white.
B) the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein.
C) the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane.
D) membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction.
E) inactivation of the sperm acrosome.

D

15

Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones?
A) cleavage → blastula → gastrula → morula
B) cleavage → gastrula → morula → blastula
C) cleavage → morula → blastula → gastrula
D) gastrula → morula → blastula → cleavage
E) morula → cleavage → gastrula → blastula

C

16

As cleavage continues during frog development, the size of the blastomeres
A) increases as the number of the blastomeres decreases.
B) increases as the number of the blastomeres increases.
C) decreases as the number of the blastomeres increases.
D) decreases as the number of the blastomeres decreases.
E) increases as the number of the blastomeres stays the same.

C

17

In all vertebrate animals, development requires
A) a large supply of yolk.
B) an aqueous environment.
C) extraembryonic membranes.
D) an amnion.
E) a primitive streak.

B

18

From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences?
A) first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction
B) cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → first cell division
C) cortical reaction → acrosomal reaction → first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins
D) first cell division → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction
E) acrosomal reaction → cortical reaction → synthesis of embryo's DNA begins → first cell division

E

19

The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is
A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm.
B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm.
C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.
D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm.
E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm.

C

20

Changes in the shape of a cell usually involve a reorganization of the
A) nucleus.
B) cytoskeleton.
C) extracellular matrix.
D) transport proteins.
E) nucleolus.

B

21

66) The embryonic precursor to the human spinal cord is the
A) notochord.
B) neural tube.
C) mesoderm.
D) archenteron.
E) set of bilateral somites.

B

22

The least amount of yolk would be found in the egg of a
A) bird.
B) fish.
C) frog.
D) eutherian (placental) mammal.
E) reptile.

D

23

During metamorphosis a tadpole's tail is reduced in size by the process of

A) regeneration

B) oxidative phosphorylation

C) apoptisis

D) re-differentiation

C

24

The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans
A) is composed of a single cell, in which the developmental origin of each protein has been mapped.
B) is composed of about 1,000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell has been mapped.
C) has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced.
D) has about 1,000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced.
E) uniquely, among animals, utilizes programmed cell death during normal development.

B

25

The arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in 3-D space defines
A) pattern formation.
B) induction.
C) differentiation.
D) determination.
E) organogenesis.

A

26

Most of the neurons in the human brain are
A) sensory neurons.
B) motor neurons.
C) interneurons.
D) auditory neurons.
E) peripheral neurons.

C

27

In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by
A) the dendritic membrane.
B) the presynaptic membrane.
C) axon hillocks.
D) cell bodies.
E) ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

B

28

A cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is

A) Ca2+

B) Na+

C) Cl-

D) K+

D

29

The membrane potential in which there is no net movement of the ion across the membrane is called the

A) equilibrium potential

B) action potential

C) graded potential

D) threshold potential

A

30

The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell due to

A) sodium-potassium pumps

B) symports and antiports

C) sodium and potassium channels

D) osmosis

A

31

Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?
A) The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction.
B) The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
C) The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon.
D) Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.
E) Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.

B

32
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The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label

A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.

A

33
card image

The cell is not hyperpolarized; however, repolarization is in progress, as the sodium channels are closing or closed, and many potassium channels have opened at label
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.

C

34
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The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.

E

35

In multiple sclerosis the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and spinal cord are damaged and demyelination results. How does this disease manifest at the level of the action potential?

I. Action potentials move int he opposite direction on the axon

II. Action potentials move more slowly along the axon

III. No action potentials are transmitted

A) only I

B) only II

C) only III

D) only II and III

B

36

Receptors for neurotransmitters are of primary functional importance in assuring one-way synaptic transmission because they are mostly found on the
A) axonal membrane.
B) axon hillock.
C) dendritic membrane.
D) mitochondrial membrane.
E) presynaptic membrane.

C

37

Self-propagation and refractory periods are typical of
A) action potentials.
B) graded hyperpolarizations.
C) excitatory postsynaptic potentials.
D) threshold potentials.
E) resting potentials.

A

38

A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be expected to
A) prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential.
B) prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential.
C) prevent graded potentials.
D) increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules.
E) have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron.

B

39

Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.
A) astrocytesmetabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B) oligodendrocytesproduce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system
C) microgliaproduce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system
D) radial gliathe source of immunoprotection against pathogens.
E) Schwann cellsprovide nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons

A

40

Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in the
A) gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord.
B) white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C) gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
D) white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord.
E) all areas of the brain and spinal cord.

D

41

Exercise and emergency reactions include
A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system.
B) increased activity in the sympathetic, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic branches.
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic, and increased activity in the parasympathetic branches.
D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system.
E) reduced heart rate and blood pressure.

B

42

Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in
A) Hydra.
B) cnidarians.
C) Planaria.
D) sea stars.
E) invertebrate animals with radial symmetry.

C

43

In a cephalized invertebrate, the system that transmits "efferent" impulses from the anterior ganglion to distal segments is the
A) central nervous system.
B) peripheral nervous system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.

B

44

Bottlenose dolphins breathe air but can sleep in the ocean because
A) they cease breathing while sleeping and remain underwater.
B) they sleep for only 30 minutes at a time, which is the maximum interval they can cease breathing.
C) they fill their swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water while they sleep.
D) they move to shallow water to sleep, so they do not need to swim to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water.
E) they alternate which half of their brains is asleep and which half is awake.

E

45

If a doctor attempts to trigger the patellar tendon reflex and a lack of response occurs, what are potential regions where pathology might exist?
A) the brain
B) the knee
C) the spinal cord
D) the knee and spinal cord
E) the knee and the brain

D

46

Which of the following structures are correctly paired?

A) forebrain and medulla oblongata
B) forebrain and cerebellum
C) midbrain and cerebrum
D) hindbrain and cerebellum
E) brainstem and anterior pituitary gland

D

47

33) The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

B

48

When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, or when someone had a frontal lobotomy, they would
A) lose the ability to reason.
B) lose all short-term memory.
C) have greatly altered emotional responses.
D) lose all long-term memory.
E) lose their sense of balance.

C

49

Bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that
A) schizophrenia results in hallucinations.
B) schizophrenia results in both manic and depressive states.
C) schizophrenia results in decreased dopamine.
D) bipolar disorder involves both genes and environment.
E) bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines.

A

50

After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front of him but pays attention only to objects in his right field of vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has difficulty judging their size and distance. What part of the brain was likely damaged by the stroke?
A) the left frontal lobe
B) the right frontal lobe
C) the left parietal lobe
D) the right parietal lobe
E) the corpus callosum

D

51

The correct sequence of sensory processing is
A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.
B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.
D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.
E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.

B

52

Which type of receptor would you expect to be most abundant in the antennae of a moth?

A) chemoreceptors

B) thermoreceptors

C) mechanoreceptors

D) electroreceptors

A

53

Partial or complete loss of hearing can be caused by damage to the

I. axons of the neurons associated with each hair cell that carry information to the brain

II. hair cells (the sensory receptors) in the cochlea

III. tympanic membrane, or eardrum

A) only II

B) only III

C) I, II, and III

D) only I and II

C

54

Damage to the vestibular nerve will likely impair the function of the

A) sense of balance

B) primary visual cortex

C) sense of hearing

D) sense of taste

A

55

Sensory transduction of light/dark information in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by
A) ganglion cells.
B) amacrine cells.
C) bipolar cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) rods and cones.

E

56

Most of the chemosensory neurons arising in the nasal cavity have axonal projections that terminate in the
A) gustatory complex.
B) anterior hypothalamus.
C) olfactory bulb.
D) occipital lobe.
E) posterior pituitary gland.

C

57

What structures would neurobiologists look for if they are interested in determining if an animal can see in color?

A) electroreceptors

B) lens

C) opsins

D) pupil

C

58

Which sensory direction is NOT encoded by a difference in neuron identity?

A) salty and sweet

B) spicy and cool

C) loud and faint

D) red and green

C

59

The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to
A) one actin binding site and its myosin partner.
B) one sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments.
C) one myofibril and all of its sarcomeres.
D) one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers on which it has synapses.
E) an entire muscle.

D

60

The muscles of a recently deceased human can remain in a contracted state, termed rigor mortis, for several hours, due to the lack of
A) phosphorylated myosin.
B) ATP needed to break actin-myosin bonds.
C) calcium ions needed to bind to troponin.
D) oxygen supplies needed for myoglobin.
E) sodium ions needed to fire action potentials.

B

61

Which of the following is the correct sequence that describes the excitation and contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber?

1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites.
2. Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex.
3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP.
5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane.

A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5
B) 2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4
C) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1 → 5
D) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
E) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4

E

62

An endoskeleton is the primary body support for the
A) annelids, including earthworms.
B) insects, including beetles.
C) cartilaginous fishes, including sharks.
D) bivalves, including clams.
E) crustaceans, including lobsters.

C

63

Chitin is a major component of
A) the skeleton of mammals.
B) the hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms.
C) the exoskeleton of insects.
D) the body hairs of mammals.
E) the skeleton in birds.

C

64

A ball-and-socket joint connects
A) the radius to the ulna.
B) the radius to the humerus.
C) the ulna to the humerus.
D) the humerus to the scapula.
E) the radius to the scapula.

D

65

Displays of nocturnal mammals are usually
A) visual and auditory.
B) tactile and visual.
C) olfactory and auditory.
D) visual and olfactory.
E) tactile and auditory.

C

66

Upon returning to its hive, a European honeybee communicates to other worker bees the location of a nearby food source it has discovered by
A) vibrating its wings at varying frequencies.
B) performing a round dance.
C) performing a waggle dance.
D) visual cues.
E) All options are correct.

B

67

A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What animal behavior idea is manifested by this observation?
A) sign stimulus
B) cognition
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning

A

68

The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by
A) hormones.
B) evolution.
C) sexuality.
D) pheromones.
E) the nervous system.

B

69

Which of the following is required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection?

A) The behavior is determined entirely by genes

B) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed

C) The behavior is the same in all individuals in the population

D) The behavior is not genetically inherited

B

70

Listed below are several examples of types of animal behavior. Match the letter of the correct term (A-E) to each example in the following question.

A. operant conditioning
B. agonistic behavior
C. innate behavior
D. imprinting
E. altruistic behavior

16) Through trial and error, a rat learns to run a maze without mistakes to receive a food reward.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

A

71

Listed below are several examples of types of animal behavior. Match the letter of the correct term (A-E) to each example in the following question.

A. operant conditioning
B. agonistic behavior
C. innate behavior
D. imprinting
E. altruistic behavior

17) A human baby performs a sucking behavior perfectly when it is put in the presence of the nipple of its mother's breast.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

C

72

Listed below are several examples of types of animal behavior. Match the letter of the correct term (A-E) to each example in the following question.

A. operant conditioning
B. agonistic behavior
C. innate behavior
D. imprinting
E. altruistic behavior

19) Upon observing a golden eagle flying overhead, a sentry prairie dog gives a warning call to other foraging members of the prairie dog community.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

E

73

Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered the room. This is an example of
A) cognition.
B) imprinting.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) maturation.

C

74

Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter one another. Fred is courting a female. Fred grunts as Joe comes near. As Joe continues to advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest) and bares his teeth. Joe then rolls on the ground on his back, gets up, and quickly leaves. This behavioral pattern is repeated several times during the mating season. Choose the most specific behavior described by this example.
A) agonistic behavior
B) territorial behavior
C) learned behavior
D) social behavior
E) fixed action pattern

A

75

Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may be repeated several times with different males until no available males remain, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms best describes this behavior?
A) monogamy
B) polygyny
C) polyandry
D) promiscuity
E) certainty of paternity

C

76

Which of the following best describes "game theory" as it applies to animal behavior?
A) The fitness of a particular behavior is influenced by other behavioral phenotypes in a population.
B) The total of all of the behavioral displays, both male and female, is related to courtship.
C) An individual in a population changes a behavioral phenotype to gain a competitive advantage.
D) The play behavior performed by juveniles allows them to perfect adult behaviors that are needed for survival, such as hunting, courtship, and so on.
E) The evolutionary "game" is played between predator and prey, wherein the prey develops a behavior through natural selection that enables it to be less vulnerable to predation, and the predator counters with a new reciprocal predatory behavior.

A

77

Animals that help other animals of the same species
A) have excess energy reserves.
B) are bigger and stronger than the other animals.
C) are usually related to the other animals.
D) are always male.
E) have defective genes controlling their behavior.

C