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A&P II Final Part 2

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created 4 years ago by preciousangelstephanie
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1

What two structures constitute the renal corpuscle?

glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule

2

What arteries branch off the arcuate arteries?

cortical radiate (interlobular) arteries

3

In what part of the renal tubule does parathyroid hormone (PTH) promote the reabsorption of calcium ions?

distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

4

Which of the following is the most likely to cause pyelonephritis?

infection of the urinary bladder

5

Which vessels supply the cortical tissue of the kidney with blood?

cortical radiate arteries

6

What region of the male urethra runs through the urogenital diaphragm, extending about 2 cm from the prostate to the beginning of the penis?

intermediate part of the urethra (membranous urethra)

7

Which capillary bed produces filtrate?

Glomerulus

8

Which of the following is NOT a cause of anuria?

vasodilation of afferent arterioles

9

The __________ collect(s) urine, which drains continuously from the papillae; the urine is then emptied into the __________.

calyces; renal pelvis

10

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg) is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane.

TRUE

11

What hormone promotes active tubular secretion of potassium ions in the late distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting ducts?

Aldosterone

12

In what part of the renal tubule are aquaporins scarce or absent so that water CANNOT be reabsorbed?

ascending limb of the nephron loop

13

In which kidney region are all renal corpuscles located?

renal cortex

14

Despite the fact that the kidney's intrinsic controls work to maintain a constant GFR, in some situations the body's extrinsic controls will work to override these intrinsic controls in order to maintain systemic blood pressure.

TRUE

15

Which statement best describes the effect diuretics have?

Diuretics increase urinary output.

16

Which pressure is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane of the glomerulus?

hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries (HPgc)

17

Where does the efferent arteriole of the juxtamedullary nephron carry blood to?

vasa recta

18

The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to both solutes and water.

FALSE

19

Which of the following substances is not normally found in filtrate?

blood cells and large particles

20

What is the primary driving force (pressure) that produces glomerular filtration?

hydrostatic pressure of blood (blood pressure)

21

Which of the following would only be found in the glomerular filtrate if the glomerular membrane were damaged?

Protein

22

If the osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries increased from 28 mm Hg to 35 mm Hg, would net filtration increase or decrease?

net filtration would decrease

23

Calculate the net filtration pressure if capillary hydrostatic pressure is 60 mm Hg, capillary osmotic pressure is 25 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure is 10 mm Hg.

25 mm Hg

24

Which hormone(s) is/are required for facultative water reabsorption in the collecting ducts?

ADH

25

Since most patients with renal failure produce little or no urine, hemodialysis often involves removal of water from the blood. However, side-effects may develop if too much fluid is removed from the blood. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential side-effects?

vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles

26

Upon reaching what point in the nephron is reabsorption (1) dependent upon the body's needs at the time, and (2) regulated by hormones?

distal convoluted tubule

27

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

a system that regulates the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure

28

The frequency of cystitis in men is lower than in women because ______.

the male urethra is longer than the female urethra

29

Fenestrated vessels that allow passage of all plasma elements but not blood cells.

Glomerular capillaries

30

May form meandering vessels or bundles of long straight vessels.

efferent arterioles

31

High pressure vessels that forces fluid and solutes into the glomerular capsule

Afferent arterioles

32

Low pressure, porous vessels that reabsorb solutes and water from the tubule cells.

peritubular capillaries

33

Play a role in urine concentration

vasa recta

34

Chemicals that enhance urinary output are called __________.

Diuretics

35

Which part of the brain controls the micturition reflex?

Pons

36

Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney?

Nephron

37

Which vessel is present in the arterial pathway as blood flows into the kidney but NOT present in the venous pathway exiting the kidney?

Segmental

38

Which of the following best describes glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute

39

GFR regulation mechanisms primarily affect which of the following?

glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg)

40

Which of the following are mechanisms of intrinsic control of glomerular filtration (renal autoregulation)?

myogenic mechanism and tubuloglomerular feedback

41

Macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) regulate GFR through which intrinsic mechanism?

tubuloglomerular feedback

42

The myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation primarily involves smooth muscle in which blood vessels?

afferent arterioles

43

What does a high concentration of NaCl in the renal tubule at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) most likely indicate?

insufficient NaCl reabsorption due to high GFR

44

Through the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, how would an increase in filtrate NaCl concentration affect afferent arteriole diameter?

Afferent arteriole diameter would decrease.

45

Granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) regulate GFR through which mechanism?

renin-angiotensin mechanism

46

Under normal conditions, the large renal arteries deliver one-fourth of the total cardiac output (about 1200 ml) to the kidneys each minute.

TRUE

47

Where in the nephron does most solute reabsorption occur?

proximal convoluted tubule

48

A nonfasting urine sample from an individual who has previously ingested donuts and a soft drink showed the presence of sugar (glucose). Which of the following statement explains the presence of the glucose in the urine?

The individual exceeded the transport maximum.

49

Approximately 80% of the energy used for active transport is devoted to the reabsorption of __________.

Sodium

50

Urinary incontinence may occur if a person has ______.

an overactive detrusor muscle

51

The __________ keeps the urethra closed when urine is not being passed from the bladder and prevents leaking between voiding.

internal urethral sphincter

52

Most solutes that are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule use which of the following pathways?

Transcellular

53

During reabsorption of water in the proximal convoluted tubule, what causes water to diffuse from the lumen into the interstitial space?

an increase in the osmolarity of the interstitium

54

The decreased intracellular concentration of sodium in tubular cells during active transport is caused by which of the following mechanisms?

the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane

55

The active transport of which ion out of proximal convoluted tubule cells causes the reabsorption of both water and solutes?

Sodium

56

Which of the following transporters in the luminal membrane results in secretion?

Na+-H+ countertransport

57

What is the limiting factor for the reabsorption of most actively transported solutes in the proximal tubule?

number of transport carriers in the luminal membrane

58

Hydronephrosis may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?

renal failure

59

Overall, which of the following pressures is ultimately responsible for glomerular filtration?

net filtration pressure

60

Which of the following is NOT one of the things that must happen for micturition to occur?

The extrusor muscle must relax.

61

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?

producing the hormones melanin and oxytocin

62

Which of the following is NOT a major urine formation process?

Micturition

63

Polycystic kidney disease always affects both kidneys instead of only the right or left kidney because ______.

it is a genetic disease

64

Which statement best describes the function of the urethra?

The urethra transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.

65

Which of the following congenital abnormalities of the urinary system is found in male infants only?

urinary bladder

66

Which of the following is the volume of filtrate formed each minute by all of the glomeruli of the kidneys?

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

67

Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?

Creatinine

68

What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys

69

What type of capillaries make up the glomerulus?

Fenestrated

70

What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?

Net filtration would decrease.

71

The renal corpuscle is made up of ________.

Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

72

Calculate the net filtration pressure if blood pressure in the glomerulus is unusually high, around 68 mm Hg.

23 mm Hg

73

The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________.

Nephron

74

Site at which most of the tubular absorption occurs

proximal convoluted tubule

75

Site of the filtrate formation

glomerulus

76

Blood supply that directly receives substances from the tubular cells

peritubular capillaries

77

Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule

collecting duct

78

The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.

Arcuate

79

Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.
1. major calyx
2. minor calyx
3. nephron
4. urethra
5. ureter
6. collecting duct

3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4

80

Which of the following does not describe the juxtaglomerular complex?

Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone.

81

Which of the three parts of the renal tubule is formed by cuboidal epithelial cells bordered by dense microvilli?

proximal convoluted tubule

82

Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.

hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments

83

How can an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor) such as captopril be effective as an antihypertensive?

ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by causing less aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone to be released, resulting in more water output and a lowering of the blood volume, which lowers the blood pressure.

84

What is the function of the macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular complex (JGC)?

The macula densa cells monitor the NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule.

85

The leading cause of chronic renal disease is hypertension.

FALSE

86

Which of the choices below is the salt level-monitoring part of the nephron?

macula densa

87

Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?

a vasa recta

88

What vessel directly feeds into the glomerulus?

afferent arteriole

89

Where is filtrate produced in the nephron?

Glomerulus

90

The macula densa cells respond to ________.

changes in solute content of the filtrate

91

Select the correct statement about the nephrons.

The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.

92

Which cells of the kidney are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in solute content of the filtrate?

macula densa cells

93

The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct.

FALSE

94

Where does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) exert its effects to promote water reabsorption?

collecting duct

95

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.

increase in the production of ADH

96

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________.

by a decrease in the blood pressure

97

Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

98

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________.

glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

99

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.

Osmosis

100

Which of the following is not true regarding tubular reabsorption?

It is a purely passive transport process.

101

Which of the following is the least important influence on reabsorption of a substance in the nephron?

molecular complexity

102

In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle the ________.

thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption

103

Which of the choices below is the least important role of tubular secretion?

ridding the body of bicarbonate ions

104

Under normal circumstances, most water is lost in __________.

Urine

105

Which of the following does NOT impact how much sodium is reabsorbed?

transport maximum of the renal proximal tubule

106

Which of the following is NOT involved in triggering the thirst mechanism?

increase in blood pressure

107

Which of the following regulates the secretion of K+ into the filtrate?

Aldosterone

108

What accounts for the route through which most fluid is lost in a day?

Urine

109

The body's water volume is closely tied to a powerful water "magnet." What magnet is referred to here?

ionic sodium

110

What is the effect of hyperventilation on pH?

respiratory alkalosis

111

A decrease in blood CO2 levels leads to __________.

an increase in blood pH

112

Which of the following is the only logical explanation for why hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability and causes muscle tetany?

Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated.

113

Which chemical buffer system is the only important system in the extracellular fluid (ECF) that resists short-term changes in pH?

bicarbonate buffer system

114

Hypersecretion of aldosterone results in hypokalemia, which causes hyperpolarization of neurons; this in turn results in ______.

the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential

115

What is the most common cation found in the interstitial fluid?

Na+

116

Which buffer system is the most abundant in the body?

Protein

117

Where is the majority of water stored in the human body?

intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment

118

Which of the following creates the greatest osmotic pressure?

H3PO4

119

Starvation would cause which of the following acid-base conditions? Also, determine what type of compensation (metabolic or respiratory) there would be.

metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

120

A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 55 mmHg, and HCO3¯ = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance?

respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation

121

A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.5, pCO2 = 45 mmHg, and HCO3¯ = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid-base imbalance?

metabolic alkalosis with no compensation

122

A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 25 mmHg, and HCO3¯ = 18 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance?

metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

123

Diarrhea can lead to which acid/base disturbance? Assuming compensation, would it be a metabolic or respiratory compensation?

metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

124

Emphysema can lead to which acid/base disturbance? What would be the compensation?

respiratory acidosis; kidneys will retain more HCO3 and excrete H+

125

This chemical equation shows the reaction of a strong acid and weak base in the bicarbonate buffer system. Provide the products of the following reaction. HCl + NaHCO3 -->

H2CO3 + NaCl

126

In order to buffer a strong acid into a weak acid, which has a less dramatic effect on pH, what chemical should be used as the buffer?

weak base

127

What solute in body fluids determines most of their chemical and physical reactions?

Electrolytes

128

In a given day, what is the typical value for water intake?

2500 ml

129

The most common cause of acid-base imbalance is __________.

respiratory acidosis

130

Which of the following is NOT a hormone involved in water and electrolyte balance?

Thyroxine

131

Select the person in the following list who would have the highest percentage of water in his or her body.

a 6-month-old baby boy

132

Which hormone raises blood calcium levels?

PTH

133

The role of ADH is to __________.

increase water reabsorption

134

How much water is generated per day from cellular metabolism?

250 ml

135

What is the most important trigger for aldosterone release?

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

136

Which age group most commonly has fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance issues?

Infants

137

What results from increased levels of aldosterone?

increased Na+ reabsorption

138

Of the three buffering mechanisms in the body, which is the strongest?

renal system

139

The bicarbonate buffer system is one of the chemical buffer systems of the body. How would the bicarbonate buffer system work if sodium hydroxide were added to a solution?

A hydrogen on carbonic acid would dissociate and join the hydroxyl group on the base to form water and sodium bicarbonate.

140

The respiratory system is one of the three systems that regulate acid-base balance in the body. How does it work to decrease an acidosis?

Carbonic acid is broken down into water and CO2; the CO2 is then exhaled.

141

In a respiratory acidosis the kidney would do which of the following?

The kidney would reabsorb bicarbonate and secrete hydrogen ions.

142

Ingesting too much antacid would cause which of the following acid-base disturbances?

metabolic alkalosis

143

Severe anxiety would cause which type of acid-base disturbance? What would be the compensation?

respiratory alkalosis; kidneys would excrete HCO3

144

The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is potassium.

TRUE

145

Which of the following is an electrolyte?

Potassium

146

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for dehydration?

increased muscle mass

147

A patient is discovered to have a strange craving for iron objects. To try to determine the cause, her physician decides to order tests to determine if this patient might have some type of ______.

Anemia

148

The most important renal mechanism for regulating acid-base balance of the blood involves __________.

maintaining HCO3- balance.

149

What type of water imbalance increases the amount of fluid in all compartments?

hypotonic hydration

150

Which of the following abnormalities would not be observed in a patient who has Addison's disease?

Hypertension

151

What is the most abundant intracellular anion?

HPO4^2-

152

What is the most important trigger for aldosterone release?

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

153

Annie has just eaten a large order of heavily salted french fries, some pickled eggs, and some cheese. How will consuming this much salt affect her physiology?

There will be a temporary increase in blood volume.

154

After traveling from Los Angeles to Denver, Claire finds she is not feeling well and checks into a clinic for help. What is the diagnosis, and what has caused this problem?

Respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. Claire is experiencing the effect of the high altitude, breathing faster and deeper to raise her oxygen levels in her blood.

155

Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid.

Potassium

156

Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________.

a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction

157

The fluid that bathes the cells found in tissues is called __________.

interstitial fluid

158

A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the psychiatric unit for anorexia. Her body weight is 89 lbs. and height is 64 inches. She admits to frequent self-induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives. She was treated on the medical unit with intravenous fluids. Now that she is on the psychiatric unit she is experiencing fluid retention as evidenced by mild puffiness and bloating. Why did she get these symptoms?

The abuse of laxatives and self-induced vomiting caused her to be chronically fluid and electrolyte depleted. She developed a compensatory increased production of aldosterone and ADH.

159

A patient is 72 years old and was admitted to the hospital for severe shortness of breath and edema to her lower extremities. She was diagnosed with heart failure. Which side of the heart failed, and how did this cause edema?

The right side of the heart failed, causing edema in her lower extremities. The failure to pump blood around the pulmonary circulation caused pooling of blood in the systemic circulation, leading to edema.

160

Total body water is not a function of which of the following?

amount of water ingested

161

An atypical accumulation of fluid in the interstitial fluid

edema

162

A condition of unusually low levels of plasma resulting in tissue edema.

Hypoproteinemia

163

A disorder entailing deficient mineralocorticoid hormone production by the adrenal cortex

Addisons disease

164

Regulates sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid

Aldosterone

165

A condition due to excessive water intake that results in net osmosis into tissue cells. This leads to severe metabolic disturbances.

hyponatremia

166

The regulation of potassium balance ________.

involves aldosterone-induced secretion of potassium

167

Hypoproteinemia is a condition of unusually low levels of plasma proteins. This problem is often characterized by ________.

tissue edema

168

To remain properly hydrated, water intake must equal water output.

TRUE

169

Premenstrual edema may be due to enhanced reabsorption of sodium chloride.

TRUE

170

Potassium balance is controlled mainly by renal mechanisms.

TRUE

171

Solutes, regardless of size, are able to move freely between compartments because water carries them along the osmotic gradients.

False

172

Which of the following statements is true regarding fluid shifts?

Electrolytes have greater osmotic power than nonelectrolytes and therefore have the greatest ability to cause fluid shifts.

173

The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is sodium.

FALSE

174

What is the driving force for water intake?

Thirst

175

Which of the choices below exerts primary control over sodium levels in the body?

Aldosterone

176

Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of sodium while enhancing potassium secretion.

TRUE

177

Blood analysis indicates a low pH, and the patient is breathing rapidly. Given your knowledge of acid-base balance, which of the following is most likely?

metabolic acidosis

178

PTH (parathyroid hormone) acts on the __________ to __________ Ca2+ reabsorption.

DCT; increase

179

Water imbalance, in which output exceeds intake, causing an imbalance in body fluids, is termed dehydration.

TRUE

180

What receptors does the brain use to detect changes in osmolality?

Osmoreceptors

181

A patient is breathing slowly and blood pH analysis indicates an abnormally high value. What is the likely diagnosis?

metabolic alkalosis

182

The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ________.

Plasma

183

Weak acids are able to act as chemical buffering systems for the body because they partially dissociate.

TRUE

184

In a given day, what is the typical value for water intake?

2500 ml

185

When aldosterone release is inhibited, sodium reabsorption cannot occur beyond the distal convoluted tubule.

TRUE

186

The phosphate buffer system is relatively unimportant for buffering blood plasma.

TRUE

187

Although the sodium content of the body may be altered, its concentration in the ECF remains relatively stable because of immediate adjustments in water volume.

TRUE

188

What hormone helps to maintain extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality when concentrations become too high?

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

189

The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________.

potassium ion concentration in blood plasma

190

The term hypotonic hydration refers to ________.

a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water

191

Electrolytes determine most of the chemical and physical reactions of body fluids.

TRUE

192

Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasodilation and potassium and water retention.

FALSE

193

Hypoproteinemia reflects a condition of unusually high levels of plasma proteins and causes tissue edema.

FALSE

194

Which of the following conditions promotes edema?

Hypoproteinemia

195

What is the hallmark of hypotonic hydration?

Hyponatremia

196

What is the most abundant intracellular cation?

K+

197

The regulation of sodium ________.

is linked to blood pressure

198

The normal pH of blood is 7.35-7.45.

TRUE

199

Which of the following is not a disorder of water balance?

excessive hydration due to excess ANP secretion

200

Salts are lost from the body in perspiration, and urine only.

FALSE

201

A patient's anxiety caused her to develop respiratory alkalosis. What breathing technique did the nurse recommend, and why?

The nurse instructed the patient to breathe slower and deeper, and to breathe into a paper bag. This will increase the patient's blood level of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, and by breathing in the expired air which has a higher concentration of carbon dioxide. As a result, the blood pH will decrease.

202

Which of the following is not a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin?

increased extracellular fluid water levels

203

A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ________.

respiratory acidosis

204

The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.

Bicarbonate

205

Which of the following statements is true regarding fluid shifts?

Electrolytes have greater osmotic power than nonelectrolytes and therefore have the greatest ability to cause fluid shifts.

206

A patient is admitted to the hospital in complete collapse. His blood pH is 6.8, and his HCO3- is 20 mEq/L. A medical history reveals that this patient is a chronic alcoholic. What diagnosis would you give, and what prognosis?

The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate metabolic acidosis. The patient will go into a coma and death soon follows.

207

Hypercalcemia causes muscle tetany.

FALSE

208

Which of the following hormones is important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys?

antidiuretic hormone

209

Which portion of the penis is removed through a procedure known as circumcision?

prepuce (foreskin)

210

What is the role of the corpus luteum?

to produce hormones that maintain the uterine lining during the first months of pregnancy

211

In cervical cancer, which cancer cells that cover the cervical tip are most likely to be abnormal?

squamous epithelial cells

212

When a couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, it is necessary to investigate the sperm of the male.

TRUE

213

Select the correct statement about male sexual response.

Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood.

214

The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only.

FALSE

215

A 38-year-old male is upset about his low sperm count and visits a "practitioner" who commonly advertises his miracle cures of sterility. The practitioner is a quack who treats conditions of low sperm count with megadoses of testosterone. The patient experiences a huge surge in libido. Would this treatment result in a higher or lower sperm count, and why?

Lower sperm count. High levels of testosterone inhibit the release of GnRH, inhibiting FSH release, resulting in direct inhibition of spermatogenesis.

216

Gametes are produced by meiosis.

TRUE

217

Prostate cancer is _______.

sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient

218

Sperm is stored in the __________.

Epididymis

219

Why CAN'T polar bodies be fertilized?

Polar bodies lack nutrient-containing cytoplasm.

220

The amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of FSH alone.

FALSE

221

The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through ________.

Mitosis

222

Which layer of the uterine wall is made of smooth muscle?

Myometrium

223

A scrotal muscle that contracts in response to cold environmental temperature is the cremaster.

TRUE

224

What is the pigmented ring of skin situated slightly below the center of each breast?

Areola

225

What part of the breast produces milk?

Alveoli

226

The primary function of the testes is to produce testosterone.

FALSE

227

Which of the following is the site where sperm are stored until they are ejaculated?

tail of the epididymis

228

Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________.

they have the same number of chromosomes

229

Sperm are ejaculated from the corpora cavernosa of the penis.

FALSE

230

A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________.

be sterile

231

The Pap smear is a test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the cervix.

TRUE

232

Which of the following inhibits the release of FSH from the anterior pituitary and GnRH from the hypothalamus when the sperm count is high?

Inhibin

233

The number of chromosomes in a human gamete is __________; this is referred to as the __________ chromosome number.

23; haploid

234

The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.

undescended testes

235

Specifically, what encloses the vestibule which houses the openings of the urethra and vagina?

labia minora

236

Why are the male testes located in the scrotum outside the body?

Immature sperm are temperature sensitive.

237

What is the product of spermatogenesis?

formation of haploid spermatozoa

238

It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature for abundant, viable sperm formation.

TRUE

239

Which of the following cells is released during ovulation?

secondary oocyte

240

Which of the following glands are responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen?

the seminal glands

241

The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin.

FALSE

242

The prostate atrophies as a man ages, and it usually causes no health problems.

FALSE

243

Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH?

Inhibin

244

The male urethra serves the urinary system only.

FALSE

245

Why does meiosis involve two nuclear divisions rather than one, as in mitosis?

Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.

246

The mammary glands belong to which of the following systems?

integumentary system

247

Ovarian follicles contain mature eggs.

FALSE

248

What are the two fatty, hair-covered skin folds that run posteriorly from the mons pubis?

labia majora

249

What part of the female duct system is the usual site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte?

uterine (fallopian) tube (oviduct)

250

A human egg or sperm contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.

FALSE

251

Although effective in treating erectile dysfunction, Viagra has the side effect of reducing systemic blood pressure by causing ______.

relaxation of muscle tissue in arteries

252

Which layer of the uterus is the site for implantation of a fertilized egg?

stratum functionalis of the endometrium

253

Which of the following conditions might contribute to an increased probability of having an ectopic pregnancy?

decreased number of cilia in the uterine tubes

254

Which of the following does NOT add substances to seminal fluid?

Urethra

255

What is the function of the blood testis barrier?

to prevent activation of the immune system of the male against the developing sperm

256

Failure to attain erection is called erectile dysfunction.

TRUE

257

A surge in __________ directly triggers ovulation.

luteinizing hormone (LH)

258

Nondisjunction may occur due to ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

259

The __________ develop into the male duct system.

mesonephric ducts

260

Why does only one egg, rather than four eggs, develop during oogenesis, given that spermatogenesis results in four sperm formed from one stem cell?

The unequal cytoplasmic division that results in one egg and three polar bodies ensures that a fertilized egg has ample nutrients for its journey to the uterus.

261

The testes are innervated by the sympathetic division of the ANS only.

FALSE

262

Viable sperm production is optimal at the body's core temperature.

FALSE

263

Extremely stressful physical activity in young females can result in excessive bone mass due to large amounts of estrogen production.

FALSE

264

A varicocele may hinder blood flow through the pampiniform venous plexus; the reduced venous drainage and the resulting elevated testicular temperature may be caused by ______.

defective venous valves in the testis

265

Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.

If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.

266

During vasectomy, what accessory duct is cut as a form of birth control?

ductus (vas) deferens

267

Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is the main androgen that is associated with female libido.

TRUE

268

During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle ________.

progesterone levels are at their highest

269

The release of __________ encourages interstitial endocrine cells to release __________.

luteinizing hormone; testosterone

270

Normally menstruation occurs when ________.

blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease

271

The "master switch" for male reproductive development is ________.

the SRY gene

272

During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle __________.

the endometrium prepares for implantation

273

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the vagina of an adult female?

The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline.

274

Oocytes only complete meiosis II if they are fertilized.

TRUE

275

Which of these male accessory ducts transports both sperm and urine?

Urethra

276

The duct system of the male reproductive system does not include the ________.

corpus spongiosum

277

Which of the following is an effect of estrogen in females?

promotes oogenesis

278

Genetic variation of individual chromosomes occurs during __________.

prophase I

279

Which cells produce androgens such as testosterone?

interstitial endocrine (Leydig) cells

280

Which of the following is housed within the spermatic cord?

testicular arteries and veins

281

Which of the following keeps the concentration of testosterone in the vicinity of the spermatogenic cells high to stimulate spermatogenesis?

androgen-binding protein (ABP)

282

During meiosis, what does crossover promote?

Crossover promotes increased genetic variability among gametes.

283

Why does meiosis involve two nuclear divisions rather than one, as in mitosis?

Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.

284

The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.

interstitial endocrine cells

285

At what point during meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?

prophase I

286

The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________.

peristaltic contractions

287

Effects of estrogen include ________.

growth of the breasts at puberty

288

If an untrained person induces an abortion and severely punctures the posterior vaginal wall, there is a potential risk of the puncture wound extending onward into the wall of the ______.

Rectum

289

Which is not a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle?

corpus luteum

290

Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise?

The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

291

Which of the following may aggravate the symptoms of a prolapsed uterus?

All of the listed responses are correct.

292

Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?

The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.

293

Which of the following is an INCORRECT matching of female reproductive structures with their functions?

uterine tube/transport unfertilized ovum to uterus for removal from the body

294

Which of the following is considered a primary sex organ in females?

Ovary

295

Amenorrhea can occur in women engaged in extremely strenuous physical activity, and also occurs in women who ______.

are pregnant

296

Which of the following will occur after ovulation?

The endometrium enters its secretory phase.

297

Which of the following results from spermiogenesis?

Sperm

298

At what point during meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?

prophase I

299

The __________ connects the uterus to the vagina.

Cervix

300

Which hormone promotes the formation of secondary sex characteristics such as the appearance of pubic, axillary, and facial hair, enhanced hair growth on the chest, and a deepening voice?

Testosterone

301

Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?

LH

302

Which of the following occurs during spermiogenesis?

sperm are produced

303

The ovaries are situated in the peritoneal cavity flanking the uterus.

TRUE

304

Enzymes that allow sperm to penetrate the egg are located in the __________ of the sperm cell.

Acrosome

305

The brain-testicular axis ________.

involves FSH and LH release

306

If embryonic testes do not produce testosterone, a genetic male develops female external genitalia. However, if embryonic testes properly produce testosterone, but a genetic male nevertheless develops female external genitalia, the cause could be ______.

a mutation in the gene that codes for the testosterone receptor

307

The __________, a layer of the endometrium, is shed during each menstruation and is then regenerated by the __________.

stratum functionalis; stratum basalis

308

Sperm is produced in the __________ of the testes.

seminiferous tubules

309

In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________.

Identical

310

Spermatogenesis ________.

involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes

311

A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________.

decreased testosterone secretion

312

When it is cold, the scrotum is pulled away from the body.

FALSE

313

The secretions of the bulbo-urethral glands neutralize traces of acidic urine in the urethra and serve as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.

TRUE

314

A man who has had a successful orchiectomy may still be able to have children because ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

315

Select the correct statement about testosterone control.

GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.

316

The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of ________.

the bulbospongiosus muscles

317

Which of the following hormones stimulates the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?

GnRH

318

The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?

They regulate the temperature of the testes.

319

How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?

They move away from the pelvic cavity.

320

Which structure of the female's external genitalia has erectile tissue like the penis?

Clitoris

321

Erection of the penis results from ________.

a parasympathetic reflex

322

The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase.

FALSE

323

Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?

regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion

324

Which of the following cells is returned to the basal lamina to continue the pool of dividing germ cells?

type A daughter cell or spermatogonium

325

The testis is divided into seminiferous tubules which contain the lobules that produce sperm and the ejaculatory duct that allows the sperm to be ejected from the body.

FALSE

326

Specifically, what encloses the vestibule which houses the openings of the urethra and vagina?

labia minora

327

Viable sperm production is optimal at the body's core temperature.

FALSE

328

Which of the following organs is NOT a part of the HPG axis?

posterior pituitary gland

329

The testicular cells that construct the blood-testis barrier are the ________.

Sustenocytes

330

Which specific layer of the uterus is shed during menstruation, approximately every 28 days?

stratum functionalis of the endometrium

331

Which of the following is the haploid cell produced as a result of meiosis I?

secondary spermatocyte