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Nester's Microbiology: A Human Perspective
Chapters 20, 21, 24, 25, 27
Nester's Microbiology, Topics 5, 6, and 7
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1

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was

Ehrlich.

2

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called

Salvarsan.

3

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was

Salvarsan.

4

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce

sulfanilamide.

5

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of

chemotherapy.

6

Penicillin was discovered by

Fleming.

7

The most effective form of penicillin is

G.

8

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was

streptomycin.

9

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics?
Penicillium
Streptomyces
Bacillus
All of the choices are correct.
Penicillium AND Streptomyces

All of the choices are correct.

10

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

11

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called

antibiotics.

12

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the

therapeutic index.

13

A high therapeutic index is

less toxic to the patient.

14

Drugs that are bacteriostatic

inhibit the growth of bacteria.

15

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix

-cidal.

16

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix

-static.

17

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called

broad-spectrum.

18

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its

half-life.

19

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed

broad-spectrum.

20

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called

synergistic.

21

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are called

antagonistic.

22

Antimicrobials may produce
allergic reactions.
toxic effects.
suppression of normal flora.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

23

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin?

Mycoplasma

24

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan?
penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
bacitracin
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

25

All members of the penicillin family have

beta-lactam rings.

26

Penicillin-binding proteins
primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs.
are enzymes.
are involved in cell wall synthesis.
inhibit non-growing bacteria.
are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

27

Beta-lactamases

break the beta-lactam ring.

28

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are
aminoglycosides.
tetracyclines.
macrolides.
bacitracins.

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

29

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on

ribosomes.

30

Which is true of aminoglycosides?
They are bacteriostatic.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
They block peptidoglycan synthesis.
They are bactericidal.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

31

Fluoroquinolones typically target

DNA gyrase.

32

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both
examples of metabolic inhibitors.
folate inhibitors.
protein synthesis inhibitors.
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.
examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

33

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of

coenzymes.

34

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to

PABA.

35

Sulfonamides work as

competitive inhibitors.

36

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n)

synergistic effect.

37

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of

M. tuberculosis.

38

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the

minimum inhibitory concentration.

39

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria.

99.9%

40

The diffusion bioassay
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

41

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial?

Kirby-Bauer test

42

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's
size.
stability.
concentration.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

43

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the

E test.

44

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to
drug-inactivating enzymes.
alteration in the target molecule.
decreased uptake of the drug.
increased elimination of the drug.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

45

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobial resistance is through the use of

R plasmids.

46

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of

Mycobacterium.

47

Antiviral drugs may target
uncoating.
nucleic acid synthesis.
viral assembly.
viral ribosomes.
uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly.

uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly

48

The target of most antifungal drugs is

ergosterol.

49

The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.
True
False

True

50

Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.
True
False

True

51

Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.
True
False

False

52

Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.
True
False

True

53

Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.
True
False

True

54

Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.
True
False

True

55

The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.
True
False

True

56

Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.
True
False

True

57

Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.
True
False

False

58

Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.
True
False

True

59

Most colds are probably caused by

rhinovirus.

60

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that spares the area around the mouth and causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is

scarlet fever.

61

Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis.
True
False

True

62

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes may be
Protein F.
M Protein.
a capsule.
Protein G.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

63

The rhinovirus contains

single-stranded RNA.

64

Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.
True
False

True

65

Rhinoviruses are effectively treated with antibiotics.
True
False

False

66

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with
antibiotics.
lysozyme.
proteases.
nucleotide analogs.
None of the choices are correct.

None of the choices are correct.

67

Rebecca Lancefield showed that almost all the strains of b-hemolytic streptococci from human infections

had the same cell wall carbohydrate "A".

68

Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics.
True
False

False

69

The conjuctivae

have no resident bacteria.

70

The cause of strep throat is

Streptococcus pyogenes- beta-hemolytic, group A

71

The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media and conjunctivitis is/are
S. aureus
H. influenzae
S. pneumoniae
S. epidermidis
H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae

H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae

72

Two relatively widespread North American lung mycoses are

coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis.

73

The disease that closely resembles "strep throat" but is of viral origin is

adenoviral pharyngitis.

74

Influenza is caused by

orthomyxovirus.

75

The eyes are protected from infection by
the washing action of the tears and eyelids.
the chemical action of lysozyme.
the use of contact lenses.
the dryness of the eye surface.
the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

76

Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population.
True
False

True

77

Which is/are true of coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis?
They are both soil fungi.
They are both dimorphic fungi.
They are both life-threatening.
They may be treated with antibiotics.
They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

78

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae?

toxoid

79

Which is true of hantavirus?
It is a zoonosis involving mice.
It has three segments of single-stranded RNA.
The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid.
Shock and death occurs in 40% of the cases.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

80

The causative agent of whooping cough is

B. pertussis.

81

About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by

S. pneumoniae.

82

The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is

a capsule.

83

Mycoplasmal and klebsiellal pneumonias
have similar incubation periods.
have causative agents that lack cell walls.
are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization.
are both relatively mild diseases.
None of the choices are correct.

None of the choices is correct.

84

Who determined that the cholera outbreak in 1850s London was due to contaminated water and approached the problem by removing the pump handle at the contaminated site?

Snow

85

The passage from the mouth to the anus is termed the

alimentary canal.

86

Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called

dental plaque.

87

The most common infectious disease of humans is

dental caries.

88

The principal cause of dental caries is

S. mutans.

89

Part of the ability of S. mutans to produce dental caries depends on its ability to

convert sucrose to lactic acid.

90

This mineral, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid.

fluoride

91

The chronic inflammatory process involving the gums and tissues around the teeth is called

periodontal disease.

92

H. pylori is, in part, able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce

ammonia from urea.

93

H. pylori appears to have some connection with
acid reflux disease.
ulcers.
dental caries.
stomach cancer.
ulcers AND stomach cancer.

ulcers AND stomach cancer.

94

Where in the body does the latent, non-infectious, non-replicating form of the herpes simplex virus persist?

sensory nerves

95

A painful finger infection attributable to herpes virus is known as a(n)

herpetic whitlow.

96

Which of the following has shown some effectiveness in treating a herpes infection?

acyclovir

97

The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is

mumps.

98

Mumps is a good candidate for elimination from the population due to
the existence of an effective vaccine.
a human only reservoir.
the absence of a latent state.
a single serotype.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

99

Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to
Vibrio spp.
C. jejuni.
Salmonella spp.
enterobacteria.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

100

The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by

pili.

101

The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically
kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis.
modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes.
kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis.
kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

102

Cholera is the classic example of a(n)

very severe form of diarrhea.

103

The diarrhea of cholera has been described as

a rice water stool.

104

The symptoms of cholera are due to the action of

an exotoxin.

105

A common source of cholera infection is

fecal contaminated material, especially water.

106

Shigella and cholera toxin both

have an A-B arrangement.

107

Shigella
are themselves nonmotile.
may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.
utilize pili to move.
utilize flagella to move.
are themselves nonmotile AND may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.

are themselves nonmotile AND may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.

108

Which of the following groups contain diarrhea-causing E. coli?
enterotoxigenic
enteroinvasive
enteropathogenic
enterohemorrhagic
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

109

Which of the following groups give rise to a disease similar to that caused by Shigella sp.?

enteroinvasive

110

Which group produces a toxin somewhat similar to that produced by Shigella dysenteriae?

enterohemorrhagic

111

Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis have a(n)

animal source.

112

The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella strains are

eggs and poultry.

113

The animal(s) often associated with Salmonella strains is/are
turtles.
iguanas.
baby chickens.
ducks.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

114

In which of these organs does a carrier of typhoid bacilli maintain the bacteria?

gallbladder

115

The most notorious typhoid carrier was

Typhoid Mary.

116

Which of these bacteria require a special medium and microaerophilic conditions?

C. jejuni

117

A mysterious sequel to C. jejuni infections is

Guillain-Barré syndrome.

118

The animal(s) most often associated with C. jejuni is/are

chickens.

119

Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by

rotavirus.

120

Viral gastroenteritis that affects people of all ages and usually lasts less than 3 days is caused by

norovirus.

121

The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is

hepatitis C

122

Hepatitis A spreads via

the fecal-oral route.

123

HBV is mainly spread by
blood.
blood products.
semen.
saliva.
blood, blood products AND semen.

blood, blood products AND semen.

124

Intestinal protozoan infections are typically spread by

the fecal-oral route.

125

The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is

giardiasis.

126

Giardiasis may be contracted from
another person.
clear mountain streams.
chlorinated city water.
cold filtered beer.
another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

127

C. parvum may infect
dogs.
pigs.
cattle.
humans.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

128

Most North American outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis have been associated with

imported leafy vegetables and berries, especially raspberries.

129

The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis
are mature when

do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces.

130

Entamoeba histolytica
causes amebiasis.
may form cysts.
cysts survive passage through the stomach.
may produce a cytotoxic enzyme.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

131

Amebiasis

often causes a bloody diarrhea.

132

The bacteria primarily responsible for dental caries is Streptococcus mutans.
True
False

True

133

Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries.
True
False

True

134

H. pylori appears connected to stomach cancer and ulcers.
True
False

True

135

The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is commonly infectious.
True
False

True

136

The mumps virus initially infects the respiratory tract.
True
False

True

137

Virulent strains of shigella typically carry a large plasmid.
True
False

True

138

The infectious dose of cholera is much larger than that for Shigella.
True
False

True

139

Cyclospora cayetanensis has, so far, not been identified with an animal source.
True
False

True

140

Cyclosporiosis is transmissable from person to person.
True
False

False

141

Both Giardia and C. parvum are resistant to chlorine.
True
False

True

142

Treponema pallidum
is the organism that causes syphilis.
is a spirochete.
can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
has become less virulent over time.
All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

143

Urinary tract infections
are relatively rare.
are the most common nosocomial infections.
include puerperal fever.
are not considered STDs.
are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

144

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows

no bacteria.

145

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
Lactobacillus.
Staphylococcus.
Corynebacterium.
Bacteroides.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

146

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
affected by estrogen levels.
dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
unchanging.
typically composed of E. coli.
affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

147

The most common urinary infection is

bacterial cystitis.

148

Bacterial cystitis
is a common nosocomial disease.
is typically caused by E. coli.
may occur through the use of a catheter.
is unusual in men under 50.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

149

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as

leptospirosis.

150

Leptospirosis is often contracted

from contaminated animal urine.

151

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of

having a premature baby.

152

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is

bacterial vaginosis.

153

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
sexual promiscuity.
intense antibacterial treatment.
disruption of normal flora.
the use of oral contraceptives.
intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

154

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of

toxic shock syndrome.

155

Toxic shock syndrome

is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus.

156

The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately

2-5 days.

157

Gonococci are parasites of

humans.

158

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by

pili.

159

Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae

destroys IgA.

160

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to
sterility.
urinary tract infections.
prostatic abscesses.
orchitis.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

161

A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is

pelvic inflammatory disease.

162

The treatment of neonates with an erythromycin ointment placed directly into the eyes is to prevent

ophthalmia neonatorum.

163

Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?

C. trachomatis

164

The most common reportable STD in the U.S. is

chlamydial infections.

165

The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis possibly attaching to sperm and ascending into the fallopian tubes is

pelvic inflammatory disease.

166

The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)

elementary body.

167

The causative agent of syphilis is

Treponema pallidum.

168

Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to

Leptospira interrogans.

169

Compared to the first big syphilis epidemic several hundred years ago in Europe, the strains of Treponema pallidum that cause syphilis today

tend to be less virulent.

170

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?

syphilis

171

The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's

intense inflammatory response.

172

During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious?

third

173

In which disease is a gumma formed?

tertiary syphilis

174

During which stage of pregnancy can T. pallidum cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus?
first trimester.
second trimester.
third trimester.
any stage.

any stage.

175

The reservoir of T. pallidum is the

human.

176

The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by

sexual or oral contact.

177

The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is

chancroid.

178

Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers?
chancroid
rubeola
herpes
leptospirosis
chancroid AND leptospirosis

chancroid AND leptospirosis

179

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?

Haemophilus ducreyi.

180

The usual cause of genital herpes is

herpes simplex virus type 2.

181

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?

herpes virus.

182

Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,

promotes the spread of AIDS.

183

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
penicillin.
erythromycin.
acyclovir.
famciclovir.
acyclovir AND famciclovir.

acyclovir AND famciclovir.

184

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is

human papillomavirus.

185

Human papillomavirus is

a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.

186

Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer?

genital warts

187

A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time.

60%

188

HPV
can integrate into the host's chromosome.
may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.
infections always lead to cancer.
cannot infect newborns at birth.
can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

189

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)

enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.

190

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are

T helper cells.

191

HIV typically attaches to

CD4.

192

HIV adversely affects
red blood cells.
nerve cells.
macrophages.
T helper cells.
macrophages AND T helper cells.

macrophages AND T helper cells.

193

HIV may be present in
blood.
semen.
tears.
vaginal secretions.
blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

194

Trichomoniasis is caused by a

protozoan.

195

Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it

lacks mitochondria.

196

Women are more likely than men to get urinary tract infections due to anatomy.
True
False

True

197

Urine contains antimicrobial substances.
True
False

True

198

Toxic shock syndrome toxins are superantigens.
True
False

True

199

Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body.
True
False

True

200

There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and one may contract gonorrhea repeatedly.
True
False

True

201

The patient is non-infectious in the third stage of syphilis.
True
False

True

202

Genital herpes may be cured with the use of acyclovir or famciclovir.
True
False

False

203

Protease inhibitors are useful in curing AIDS.
True
False

False

204

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria.
True
False

True

205

Herpes simplex enhances the spread of AIDS.
True
False

True

206

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms.
True
False

True

207

Treponema pallidum
is the organism that causes syphilis.
is a spirochete.
can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
has become less virulent over time.
All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

208

Urinary tract infections
are relatively rare.
are the most common nosocomial infections.
include puerperal fever.
are not considered STDs.
are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

209

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows

no bacteria.

210

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
Lactobacillus.
Staphylococcus.
Corynebacterium.
Bacteroides.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

211

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
affected by estrogen levels.
dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
unchanging.
typically composed of E. coli.
affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

212

The most common urinary infection is

bacterial cystitis.

213

Bacterial cystitis
is a common nosocomial disease.
is typically caused by E. coli.
may occur through the use of a catheter.
is unusual in men under 50.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

214

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as

leptospirosis.

215

Leptospirosis is often contracted

from contaminated animal urine.

216

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of

having a premature baby.

217

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is

bacterial vaginosis.

218

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
sexual promiscuity.
intense antibacterial treatment.
disruption of normal flora.
the use of oral contraceptives.
intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

219

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of

toxic shock syndrome.

220

Toxic shock syndrome

is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus.

221

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by

pili.

222

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?

syphilis

223

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?

Haemophilus ducreyi.

224

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?

herpes virus.

225

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
penicillin.
erythromycin.
acyclovir.
famciclovir.
acyclovir AND famciclovir.

acyclovir AND famciclovir.

226

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is

human papillomavirus.

227

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)

enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.

228

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are

T helper cells.

229

HIV adversely affects
red blood cells.
nerve cells.
macrophages.
T helper cells.
macrophages AND T helper cells.

macrophages AND T helper cells.

230

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria.
True
False

True

231

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms.
True
False

True

232

The scientist responsible for the development of the first anti-plague vaccine in 1866 was

Alexandre Yersin

233

The plague bacillus is known as

Yersinia pestis.

234

The circulation of an agent in the bloodstream is given a name ending in

-emia.

235

The sac which surrounds the heart is called the

pericardium.

236

Which organism may be implicated in arteriosclerosis?

Chlamydia pneumoniae

237

The fluid which bathes and nourishes the tissue cells is the

interstitial fluid.

238

A visible red streak in an infected hand or foot is referred to as

lymphangitis.

239

The small bean-shaped bodies into which the lymphatic vessels drain are the

lymph nodes.

240

Blood and lymph may carry
antibodies.
complement.
lysozyme.
interferon.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

241

The spleen, in part, functions to cleanse the

blood.

242

The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called

subacute bacterial endocarditis.

243

The most common agent(s) causing subacute bacterial endocarditis is/are

normal skin or mouth flora.

244

Which of the following can only be identified using PCR after valve surgery?

Tropheryma whippelii

245

High levels of antibodies in patients with SBE tend to be of little use because

they make the bacteria clump together and adhere to the clot.

246

The inflammatory effects of immune complexes lodged in the kidney is called

glomerulonephritis.

247

Bacteria which cause subacute bacterial endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream by
trauma.
dental procedures.
brushing teeth.
ingestion.
trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth.

trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth.

248

Acute bacterial endocarditis differs from subacute bacterial endocarditis in the

Acute bacterial endocarditis differs from subacute bacterial endocarditis in the

249

Which of the following is more likely to cause fatal septicemias?

Gram-negative bacteria

250

The material released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia is

endotoxin.

251

The cytokine released from macrophages that seems to play a major role in endotoxic shock is

tumor necrosis factor.

252

Cytokine(s) released from macrophages in response to exposure to endotoxin is/are
tumor necrosis factor.
interleukin-1.
protein A.
alpha-toxin.
tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

253

Although endotoxemia affects many organs, the organ most seriously and irreversibly affected is the

lung.

254

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with
tularemia.
brucellosis.
plague.
gastritis.
tularemia, brucellosis AND plague.

tularemia, brucellosis AND plague.

255

The common name for tularemia is

rabbit fever.

256

The development of lymph node enlargement in the region of a skin ulcer after a tick or insect bite or handling of a wild animal suggests

tularemia.

257

Which of the following is/are able to survive phagocytosis?
Brucella sp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Francisella tularensis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis

258

Brucellosis may also be known as
Bang's disease.
undulent fever.
Hansen's disease.
rabbit fever.
Bang's disease AND undulent fever.

Bang's disease AND undulent fever.

259

Traditionally the animal(s) associated with hosting Brucella is/are
cattle.
dogs.
goats.
pigs.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

260

The "Black Death" may also be known as

plague.

261

The disease responsible for the death of approximately ¼ the population of Europe from 1346 to 1350 was

plague.

262

Symptoms of plague appear in

one to six days.

263

The causative agent of plague is

Yersinia pestis.

264

Yersinia pestis typically contains

three plasmids.

265

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on

three separate plasmids.

266

The virulence factor of Yersinia pestis that is a protease that destroys C3b and C5a is

PLA.

267

Yops proteins, produced by Yersinia pestis,

interfere with phagocytosis.

268

The plague is typically transmitted via the bite of

fleas.

269

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with
tularemia.
brucellosis.
plague.
infectious mononucleosis.
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

270

The cause of infectious mononucleosis is

Epstein-Barr virus.

271

Epstein-Barr virus may become latent in

B cells.

272

The production of heterophile antibody is associated with

infectious mononucleosis.

273

Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva?
infectious mononucleosis
rabies
plague
yellow fever
infectious mononucleosis AND rabies

infectious mononucleosis AND rabies

274

Yellow fever is transmitted by

Aedes mosquitoes.

275

The disease caused by an enveloped single-stranded RNA arbovirus of the flavivirus family is

yellow fever.

276

Which of the following is caused by a protozoan infection?

malaria

277

Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes?
plague
yellow fever
malaria
tularemia
yellow fever AND malaria

yellow fever AND malaria

278

Which species of Plasmodium causes the most serious form of malaria?

falciparum

279

In which of the following diseases does the spleen enlarge?
infectious mononucleosis
malaria
leishmaniasis
brucellosis
All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

280

Muscles aid the flow of venous blood.
True
False

True

281

Septicemia is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria.
True
False

False

282

Both Francisella tularensis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to survive phagocytosis.
True
False

True

283

Gram-positive organisms are more likely to cause fatal septicemias than other infectious agents.
True
False

False

284

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on a plasmid.
True
False

True

285

Yellow fever is caused by a protozoan infection.
True
False

False

286

Both malaria and yellow fever are transmitted by mosquitoes.
True
False

True

287

Plasmodium falciparum causes the most serious form of malaria.
True
False

True

288

In a malarial infection, only sporozoites can infect the human liver.
True
False

True

289

What is the difference between 'bacteremia' and 'septicemia?'

Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents.